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labwork [276]
3 years ago
7

The weekly amount spent by a small company for in-state travel has approximately a normal distribution with mean $1450 and stand

ard deviation $220. What is the probability that the actual expenses will exceed $1560 in 20 or more weeks during the next year?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Llana [10]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

0.0903

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that :

The mean = 1450

The standard deviation = 220

sample mean = 1560

P(X > 1560) = P( Z > \dfrac{x - \mu}{\sigma})

P(X > 1560) = P(Z > \dfrac{1560 - 1450}{220})

P(X > 1560) = P(Z > \dfrac{110}{220})

P(X> 1560) = P(Z > 0.5)

P(X> 1560) = 1 - P(Z < 0.5)

From the z tables;

P(X> 1560) = 1 - 0.6915

P(X> 1560) = 0.3085

Let consider the given number of weeks = 52

Mean \mu_x = np = 52 × 0.3085 = 16.042

The standard deviation =  \sqrt {n \time p (1-p)}

The standard deviation = \sqrt {52 \times 0.3085 (1-0.3085)}

The standard deviation = 3.3306

Let Y be a random variable that proceeds in a binomial distribution, which denotes the number of weeks in a year that exceeds $1560.

Then;

Pr ( Y > 20) = P( z > 20)

Pr ( Y > 20) = P(Z > \dfrac{20.5 - 16.042}{3.3306})

Pr ( Y > 20) = P(Z >1 .338)

From z tables

P(Y > 20) \simeq 0.0903

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pickupchik [31]

Answer:

35 bricks for $25.90

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Step-by-step explanation:

Cost per brick = number of bricks / price of bricks

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1300 / $845 = $1.54

230 / $170.20 = $1.35

100 / $75 = $1.33

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Based on these calculations, the bricks that have the same cost per brick are :

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2 years ago
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victus00 [196]
<h2>Greetings!</h2>

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This means the value of the bigger number is 100 + 75 (because 100 is the starting number and 75 is the percent bigger)

This can be shown with the following equation:

Amount * \frac{percentage}{100}

x *  \frac{175}{100} = 1.75x

1.75x is the value of the bigger number.


<h2>Hope this helps!</h2>
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