I need help. plz. 10 points I'm begging.
1 answer:
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Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
From the definition if inverse function we can say if y = f(x) and x = h(y) then h(x) is the inverse function of f(x).
Here the given function is and we have to find the
i.e. the inverse function of g(x).
Now, let us assume
Now, taking ln both sides we get,
{Since }
⇒
Therefore, (Answer)
Answer:
False
Step-by-step explanation:
The answer is false because i just got it correct on A P E X. your welceom hope everyone looking at this gets their question correct and has a good day. also have you given the brainliest to anyone yet.
