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kykrilka [37]
2 years ago
5

Suppose the lead time is 3 operating days, and that the superstore wishes to maintain instock probability of 90%. The demand in

each day is normal distributed with standard deviation 10, and the demands cross 3 days are independent. What is the re-order point? The z-score for 0.9 is 1.28. (
Business
1 answer:
AveGali [126]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

the  re-order point is 97.17

Explanation:

The computation of the re-order point is given below:

Re-order point is

= (Daily demand × Lead time) + (Z × Standard deviation × Sqrt(Lead time)

= (25 × 3) + (1.28 × 10 × Sqrt(3))

= 97.17

hence, the  re-order point is 97.17

The same is to be considered and relevant too

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Which of the following is prepared first? A. Balance sheet B. Income statement C. Statement of owner’s equity D. Trial balance
Gre4nikov [31]
The income statement is prepared first. The income statement i<span>s a financial statement that reports the company's financial performance (profit and loss) over a specific accounting period. It describes how the business incurs its revenues and expenses, and it is also referred as </span>profit and loss statement (P&L). With help of this report management knows if the business made money during the period reported.
7 0
3 years ago
St. Claire Manufacturing expects to produce and sell 6,000 units of Big, its only product, for $20 each. Direct material cost is
Taya2010 [7]

Answer:

According to generally accepted accounting principles, inventoriable cost per unit of Big would be $17.00

Explanation:

Absorption Costing method is suitable for external reporting purposes and thus preferred in reporting According to the generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP)

Absorption Costing Includes Both Fixed and Variable <em>Manufacturing Overheads</em> in Product Costings Calculations

<u>Calculation of Inventory  Cost per Unit According to Absorption Costing:</u>

Direct material                                                                       2.00

Direct labor                                                                            8.00

Variable Manufacturing Overhead                                       3.00

Fixed Manufacturing Overhead ($24,000/6,000)              4.00

Inventory Cost per Unit                                                        17.00

5 0
3 years ago
One reason there is a need for integrated marketing communications is that​ __________.
ELEN [110]

One reason there is a need for integrated marketing communications is that consumers​ don't distinguish between content sources the way marketers do.

Explanation:

Integrated messaging in marketing is a simple concept. This guarantees the diligent relation of all forms of communication and communications. Integrated marketing communications, or IMC, as we will term it, at its fundamental level, involves combining all promotional instruments in a harmonious fashion.

For example, an IMC is used to convey campaign messages through various channels. This increases the efficiency of activities used to turn foreigners into prospects and customers.

6 0
3 years ago
Elmer Sporting Goods is getting ready to produce a new line of golf clubs by investing $1.85 million. The investment will result
Tems11 [23]

Answer:

The payback period for this project is 2.43 years.

Explanation:

Elmer Sporting Goods is getting ready to produce a new line of golf clubs by investing $1.85 million.

The investment will result in additional cash flows of $525,000, $812,500, and 1,200,000 over the next three years.

The payback period is the time it takes to cover the investment to be covered by returns.

The investment cost remaining in the first year

= $1,850,000 - $525,000

= $1,325,000

The investment cost remaining in the second year

= $1,325,000 - $812,500

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The third year payback

= \frac{\$ 512,500}{\$ 1,200,000}

= 0.427

The total payback period

= 2.43 years

6 0
2 years ago
Dj, inc., has net working capital of $2,170, current liabilities of $4,590, and inventory of $3,860.
jenyasd209 [6]

The above answer can be explained as under -

Given,

Current Liabilities =  $ 4,590

Net working capital = $ 2,170

So, the current assets will be calculated as under -

Net working capital = Current assets - Current liabilities

$ 2,170 = Current assets - $ 4,590

Current assets =  $ 2,170  + $ 4,590

Current assets = $ 6,760

The liquid or quick assets will be calculated as -

Current assets - Inventory = Quick assets

Quick assets = $ 6,760 - $ 3,860

Quick assets = $ 2,900.

Now,

1. Current ratio = \frac{Current assets }{Current Liabilities}

Current ratio = \frac{$ 6,760 }{$ 4,590} = 1.47

2. Quick ratio = \frac{Quick assets }{Current Liabilities}

Quick ratio = \frac{$ 2,900 }{$ 4,590} = 0.63

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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