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HACTEHA [7]
2 years ago
10

Answer please I’m stuck

Mathematics
1 answer:
andreev551 [17]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

196

Step-by-step explanation:

We will use the formula:

Surface Area of A / Surface area of B = (Height of A /Height of B)^2

49/S2 = (4/8)^2

49/S2 = 1/4

S2 = 196

Answred by Gauthmath

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Is 1/4 bigger than 0
Helga [31]
Yes, it is bigger than 0
3 0
3 years ago
Please help I really need help because I have to turn it in soon and yeah so comment
BartSMP [9]

Answer:

hi

Step-by-step explanation:

4- 3*1=3

6*1/100= 0.06

3+0.06= 3.06

5- 7*1= 7

3*1/10= 0.3

4*1/1,000= 0.004

7+0.3+0.004= 7.304

7- 3.3, 3.30

8- 9.3000, 9.30

9- 9.6, 9.600

10- 4.4000, 4.40

for #4-5 just put the number of 0s in the denominator of the fraction for the answer

3 0
2 years ago
Middle School: Math (10 Points)
sasho [114]
1) Our marbles will be blue, red, and green. You need two fractions that can be multiplied together to make 1/6. There are two sets of numbers that can be multiplied to make 6: 1 and 6, and 2 and 3. If you give the marbles a 1/1 chance of being picked, then there's no way that a 1/6 chance can be present So we need to use a 1/3 and a 1/2 chance. 2 isn't a factor of 6, but 3 is. So we need the 1/3 chance to become apparent first. Therefore, 3 of the marbles will need to be one colour, to make a 1/3 chance of picking them out of the 9. So let's say 3 of the marbles are green. So now you have 8 marbles left, and you need a 1/2 chance of picking another colour. 8/2 = 4, so 4 of the marbles must be another colour, to make a 1/2 chance of picking them. So let's say 4 of the marbles are blue. We know 3 are green and 4 are blue, 3 + 4 is 7, so the last 2 must be red.
The problem could look like this:

A bag contains 4 blue marbles, 2 red marbles, and 3 green marbles. What are the chances she will pick 1 blue and 1 green marble?

You should note that picking the blue first, then the green, will make no difference to the overall probability, it's still 1/6. Don't worry, I checked

2) a - 2%  as a probability is 2/100, or 1/50. The chance of two pudding cups, as the two aren't related, both being defective in the same packet are therefore 1/50 * 1/50, or 1/2500.  

b - 1,000,000/2500 = 400
400 packages are defective each year
5 0
3 years ago
The change in the value of an account when given to the nearest dollar 1/16 inch
Feliz [49]
This would be 2 because of the rounding rules of it being 5 and up round up and below 5 round down. I hope I helped!
7 0
2 years ago
What is 75 2/5% in decimal
krok68 [10]

Answer:

.754

Step-by-step explanation:

Percentage is based off of 1 or 100% which is equal to 1. So 50% or half of both 100% and 1 would be translated as .5 and as the percentage becomes more accurate or lengthy you add to the decimal so 53% is .53 and 53.4% is .534

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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