Marginal cost is the incremental cost incurred for one additional unit.
Marginal benefit is the incremental benefit gained from the one additional unit.
The maximized utility is the concept of getting maximum values from the minimum expenditure.
If you decide to eat one more chip. the change in the total amount gained that comes from this action is the Marginal benefit.
Hence the correct answer is the <u>Marginal benefit</u>
Answer:
8.10%
Explanation:
The required rate of return (yield) on the preferred stock = Dividend / Price
= $12.80 / $158 = 0.0810126582278481 = 8.10%
Answer: Option (c) is correct.
Explanation:
Correct Option - An increase in the state of technology.
The aggregate supply curve in the long run is a vertical line and parallel to the y-axis. |t is perfectly inelastic in the long run.
Now, if there is increase in the money supply in the economy then this will increase the aggregate demand in the short run. Hence, aggregate demand curve shift rightwards, as a result real GDP increases in the short run and move beyond the potential level of real GDP.
Also, there is a creation of inflationary gap in the economy, as a result real GDP shifts back to its initial position at potential real GDP. So, there is no increase real GDP in the long run.
Similarly, decrease in interest rates and an increase in government spending will also results in inflationary gap in the economy. Therefore, doesn't affect the real GDP in the long run.
But an increase in the state of technology is capable of increasing real GDP in the long run. Improvement in the state of technology will shift the long run aggregate supply curve rightwards, as result there is an increase in potential GDP in the long run.
Answer:
Letter D is guess
Explanation:
Don't give out personal info, have a complex password and don't give it out to anyone, don't click on random pop up adds, and use a firewall
If<span> each </span>investor<span> receives </span>voting rights<span> for </span>company<span> decisions based on </span>share<span> ownership, every shareholder has 10% </span><span>control.
</span><span>If a company issues 2,500,000 = (approx)= </span><span>1,250,000 shares
example: </span><span>If the company issues another 25,000,000 options or shares over the intervening five years so there are 50,000,000 shares at the IPO (typically either as part of fundraising including an IPO or to hire employees), you’re left with .01% – one basis point or half of your original percentage. You have had 50% dilution. You now make half as much for the same company value.
hope it understands !</span>
