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horsena [70]
3 years ago
12

The selling price of an item is ​$480. It is marked down by ​10%, but this sale price is still marked up from the cost of ​$. Fi

nd the markup from cost to sale price.
Mathematics
2 answers:
erma4kov [3.2K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Markup = [(Revenue – COGS) / COGS] X 100.

Markup = (Gross Profit / COGS) X 100.

Markup = [(Revenue – COGS) / COGS] X 100.

Markup = [($400 – $250) / $250] X 100.

Selling Price = [(Markup X COGS) + COGS] X 100.

Selling Price = (Markup X COGS) + COGS.

Selling Price = (0.50 X $100) + $100.

Step-by-step explanation:

um i think this is the answer

Firlakuza [10]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: can someone help with my question really need help its a test.

Step-by-step explanation:

9999999

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5 0
4 years ago
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Change the fraction to a whole number or mixed number:<br> 10/3 = _____
sergejj [24]
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4 0
3 years ago
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What is square root of 28 approximated to the nearest tenth?
Kryger [21]
Say to yourself - which whole numbers does the square root of 28 lie between.
Well 5 x 5 = 25  and 6 x 6 = 36.   So it lies between 5 and 6 and because 28 is a little closer to 25 than it is to 36, we should guess a number that is less than 5.5.

It doesn't matter whether I chose 5.4, 5.3, 5.2 or 5.1 but my best guess would be about 5.2 or 5.3.  I already know which is the better of the two having used a calculator.  But instead I am going pretend I don't have one handy and I will use 5.2
Now I will divide 28 by 5.2     28/5.2=5.38 rounded to the nearest hundredth.
Now I will find the average of my divisor (5.2) and my answer 5.38
(5.2+5.38)/2 = 5.29  I will use that number (5.29) as my new divisor
28/5.29 = 5.293 rounded.   I already have enough information to round the square root of 28 to the nearest tenth.  It will be 5.3 since the 9 is large enough 
 to round the 2 to a 3.  5.3 is the answer.
We could continue to average the answer and the divisor and use the new number to round the square root of 28 to the nearest 100th, 1000th and so on, but because the square root of 28 is irrational, we will never get an exact answer.  There is no number times itself that equals 28.
8 0
3 years ago
The sum of 6 consecutive integers is 339.
Zigmanuir [339]

Answer:

<u>54, 55, 56, 57, 58, and 59</u> are the numbers

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's pretend that the first number is n.

We know that these numbers are consecutive, meaning each number is one more than the other.

This means that

n + (n+1)+ (n+2)+ (n+3)+ (n+4)+ (n+5) = 339, since each number is consecutive.

We can combine like terms to get 6n + 15 = 339.

Now let's solve for n.

6n + 15 - 15 = 339-15\\\\6n = 324\\\\n = 54

So n=54. This means the other 5 digits will be one more than the next.

So 54, 55, 56, 57, 58, and 59.

Hope this helped!

4 0
3 years ago
Write the equation of the line that contains the points (5,7) and (5, -12):
Ainat [17]

Step-by-step explanation:

Well you first have to find the slope, which is y2-y1/x2-x1

Which is -12-7/5-5 and that equals to undefined.

So since you can't find the slope the answer should be undefined.

Hope this helps <3

8 0
4 years ago
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