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pochemuha
3 years ago
8

Please help!!!!

Mathematics
1 answer:
ASHA 777 [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

√32=5.65

I hope it's helps you

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If a and b are events and b ⊂ a, why is it "obvious" that p(b) ≤ p(a)?
Masja [62]

Answer:

If a and b are two events such that:

b⊂a

Then it is obvious that p(b)≤p(a)

where p denotes the probability of an event.

<em>" Because as one event is contained in the other that means it has possibility to contain more favourable outcomes than the other while the probability of both the events is calculated by taking the total number of outcomes to be equal "</em>

Let us consider an <u>example</u> as:

We roll a die;

so the total outcomes are: {1,2,3,4,5,6}.

Now let b denotes the event that the number is an even number less than 5.

Number of favourable outcomes( {2,4} )=2

p(b)= 2/6

let a denotes that the number is less than 5.

Then Number of favourable outcomes( {1,2,3,4} )=4

p(a)=4/6

clearly b⊂a

also we could see that p(b)<p(a)



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4 years ago
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3 years ago
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Tilly begins a running program to train for a marathon. She starts by running 1 mile the first week and tripling the number of m
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Answer:

The sequence is a function as for any value of n we can not get more than one different A_n value.

Step-by-step explanation:

Tilly starts by running 1 mile in the first week and tripling the number of miles each week.

Now, the number of miles Tilly will run can be modeled by the sequence A_n = 1 \times 3^{(n - 1)}, where n is the number of weeks since she began her program.

Therefore, in the second week she runs 3 miles, in the third week she runs 9 miles and so on.

Therefore, the sequence is a function as for any value of n we can not get more than one different A_n value. (Answer)

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