Answer:
D. $ 600,000
Explanation:
if X's withdrawals = y
Net Income = 2y
X 's share of profit = 2y ×60%
= 1.2 y
X's Closing capital + X's withdrawals = Opening Capital + Share of Net income
$ 140000 + y = $ 80000 + 1.2y
1.2y - y = $ 140000 - $ 80000
= $60000
0.20y = $ 60000
y = $ 300000
Therefore,
Net Income = 2y
= 2×300000
= $ 600000
Answer:
A. Liquidity management is a balancing act, managers try to find liquidity levels that are neither too high not too low.
Explanation:
Maintaining proper liquidity is an important financial objective of management. Proper liquidity management demands that an entity should be able to meet his short term financial obligation and making sure that liquid assets of the entity are not idle. In order to achieve this, the best way to go is to maintain a level that is neither too high and not too low. Not too high means the entity is not holding too much cash or liquid assets than it currently need to meet its short term financial obligation.
For example, not keeping too much cash in current account but investing them in interest-earning investment assets.
Not too low means the cash or liquid assets held by an entity should not less than the amount needed to meet its short term financial obligation. For example, making sure that the entity has enough cash or readily convertible liquid assets that can be used to pay vendors, rent, interest and meet other short term financial obligation.
Option B is false because keeping too much does not help to maximize short term earnings which is a feature of proper liquidity management. Option C is wrong because there is no guideline to support that deferring coupon payment won`t attract payment and this does not connote proper liquidity management.
Option D is obviously false and does not describe proper liquidity management.
Answer:
A. $194, 035
Explanation:
Predetermined Manufacturing overhead Rate = Estimated total overheads / Estimated direct labor hours
Predetermined Manufacturing overhead Rate = $176,000 / 13,700
Predetermined Manufacturing overhead Rate = $12.85 / direct labor hour
Actual Labor hours = 15,100 hours
Manufacturing overhead allocated = $12.85x 15,100
Manufacturing overhead allocated = $194,035
The correct option is A. $194, 035
Answer:
$756,000
Explanation:
Allowance for Bad Debts opening ($24,000)
Allowance for Bad Debts Closing $780,000
(13,000,000)*6%
Allowance Bad Debt Expense for the year $756,000
Answer:
option A,$19,200
Explanation:
The amount stock dividend issued that needs to be transferred from retained earnings to paid-in capital accounts by debiting the retained earnings and crediting the paid-in capital accounts is computed by the below formula:
Stock dividend value=stock dividend %* issued shares*market price
stock dividend % is 4%
issued shares is 40,000 shares
market price of stock is $12
stock dividend value=4%*40,000*$12=$19,200
The correct option is $19,200 option A.
One should be misled by the issue price of $8 per share,since that gives a different option which is wrong
