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QveST [7]
3 years ago
12

Required information

Business
1 answer:
Bezzdna [24]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Total allocated costs= $19

Explanation:

<u>First, we need to calculate the predetermined manufacturing overhead rate for each department:</u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Assembly= 390,000 / 390,000= $1 per machine hour

Finishing= 581,100 / 149,000= $3.9 per direct labor hour

<u>Now, we can allocate overhead:</u>

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Assembly= 1*3.4= $3.4

Finishing= 3.9*4= $15.6

Total allocated costs= $19

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George, a chef and owner of a popular restaurant, is always visiting his competition to observe how they are doing things in the
Vedmedyk [2.9K]

George is utilizing competitive intelligence. This is a strategy in which the individual made use of gathering, defining and as well as analyzing their customers, competitors or products by means of helping improve his or her own business and to make strategic decisions that would be best for one’s business or company.

7 0
3 years ago
HELP!!!
Anarel [89]

Answer:

About 250 ; 2000 bicycles

Explanation:

Opportunity cost simply means the loss incurred on a certain option when the alternative opruoonos chosen.

The opportunity cost of increasing shoe production from 10,000 to 20,000 pairs

The value of 20,000 (x axis) on the y axis is about 3750

Value of point A in the y - axis = 4000

Hence opportunity cost = (4000 - 3750) = 250 bicycles

B.)

The opportunity cost of increasing shoe production from 50,000 to 60,000 pairs

The value of 60,000 (x axis) on the y axis is about 0

Value of point B in the y - axis = 2000

Hence opportunity cost = (2000 - 0) = 2000 bicycles

3 0
3 years ago
Pakistan’s GDP in 2010, using the official exchange rate on 1/1/2010, is equal to $300 billion USD ($300,000,000,000). When 2010
docker41 [41]

Answer:

Undervalued

Explanation:

The PPP exchange rate is the implicit exchange rate, so that everywhere, one dollar has the same purchasing power. In general, this exchange rate is different from the exchange rate on the market.

Because the same nominal GDP translates to a higher real GDP by using the PPP exchange rate, one Pakistan Rupee must be valued more in terms of U.S. dollars than in contexts of the market exchange rate under the PPP exchange rate. The Pakistan Rupee is therefore worth less than its true value in the economy, i.e., undervalued.

5 0
4 years ago
Dock Corporation makes two products from a common input. Joint processing costs up to the split-off point total $33,600 a year.
aniked [119]

Answer:

20,500

Explanation:

The minimum price at split off is the benefit of further processing less the cost of this processing.

product X further process sales value:        35,000

cost of further processing:                             (15,000)

minimum accepted price at split-off point: 20,500

The reasoning is as follow: the company will sale at leat to break even.

so the product at split off will be sold at cost.

to get 35,500 worth of goods we must add up to 15,000 dollars

so the initial cost is 35,500 - 15,000 = 20,500

7 0
3 years ago
Your bank account pays a 5% nominal rate of interest. The interest is compounded quarterly. Which of the following statements is
Ugo [173]

Answer:

The answer is option d. The periodic rate of interest is 1.25% and the effective rate of interest is greater than 5%

Explanation:

Step 1: Determine stated interest rate

The stated interest rate=nominal interest rate=5%

Step 2: Determine periodic interest rate

The periodic interest rate can be expressed as;

periodic interest rate=stated interest rate/number of compounding periods

where;

stated interest rate=5%=5/100=0.05

number of compounding periods=4

replacing;

periodic interest rate=0.05/4=0.0125×100=1.25%

The periodic interest rate=1.25%

Step 3: Determine effective interest rate

The formula for calculating the effective interest rate can be expressed as;

Effective interest rate={(1+i/n)^n}-1

where;

i=stated interest rate=0.05

n=number of compounding periods in a year=4

replacing;

Effective interest rate={(1+0.05/4)^4}-1

Effective interest rate=0.051×100=5.1%

8 0
3 years ago
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