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QveST [7]
3 years ago
12

Required information

Business
1 answer:
Bezzdna [24]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Total allocated costs= $19

Explanation:

<u>First, we need to calculate the predetermined manufacturing overhead rate for each department:</u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Assembly= 390,000 / 390,000= $1 per machine hour

Finishing= 581,100 / 149,000= $3.9 per direct labor hour

<u>Now, we can allocate overhead:</u>

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Assembly= 1*3.4= $3.4

Finishing= 3.9*4= $15.6

Total allocated costs= $19

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Answer:

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5 0
3 years ago
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Piere Imports uses the perpetual system in accounting for merchandise inventory and had the following transactionsduring the mon
frozen [14]

Answer:

<u>If records invoices at gross amounts</u>

October 2th

inventory    3,000 debit

    A/P                    3,000 credit

October 2nd

A/P              500 debit

      inventory           500 credit

October 17th

inventory       5,400 debit

      A/P                    5,400 credit

October 26th

A/P                5,400 debit

           Inventory          108 credit

           cash               5,292 credit

October 31th

A/P             2,500 debit

      Cash                 2,500 credit

<u>If records invoices at nets amounts</u>

October 2th

inventory    2,940 debit

    A/P                    2,940 credit

October 2nd

A/P              490 debit

      inventory           490 credit

October 17th

inventory       5,292 debit

      A/P                    5,292 credit

October 26th

A/P                5,292 debit

           cash               5,292 credit

October 31th

A/P             2,490 debit

Inventory         10 debit

      Cash                 2,500 credit

Explanation:

gross amount: we use the invoice nominal

net amount: we use the net nominal

October 2nd net:

3,000 x (1-2%) = 2,940

returns net: 500 x ( 1 - 2%) = 490

October 16th invoice net:

5,400 x ( 1 - 2%) = 5,292

october 31th

october 2th invoice balance:

2,940 - 490 = 2,450

8 0
4 years ago
The current (year 0) price of the shares of Company XYZ is $50. There are 1 million shares outstanding. Next year (year 1)’s div
otez555 [7]

Answer:

1. The dividend per share in year 2 would be $2.16.

The dividend per share in year 3 would be $2.3328

2. The market value of the firm is $50 million

3. The value of the firm next year after the payout is $ 54

Explanation:

1. In order to calculate the dividend per share in year 2 and the dividend per share in year 3 we would have to make the following calculation:

dividend per share in year 2=dividend per share in year 1*(1+Growth Rate)

dividend per share in year 1=$2

Growth Rate=Retention Ratio * ROE

Growth Rate=40% * 20%

Growth Rate=8%

Therefore, dividend per share in year 2=$2*(1+8%)

dividend per share in year 2=$2.16

dividend per share in year 3=dividend per share in year 2*(1+Growth Rate)

dividend per share in year 3=$2.16(1´8%)

dividend per share in year 3=$2.3328

2. In order to calculate the current market value of the firm we would have to make the following calculation:

market value of the firm=Currect Share Price * Number of outstanding shares

According to the given data:

Currect Share Price=$50

Number of outstanding shares=1 million shares

market value of the firm=$50*1 million shares

market value of the firm=$50 million

3. In order to calculate the value of the firm next year after the payout we would have to calculate first the rate of return as follows:

value of the firm =dividend per share in year 1/rate  of return-growth rate

$50* Rate of Return - 4 = $2

Rate of Return = 6 / 50

Rate of Return =12%

Therefore, value of the firm next year after the payout=dividend per share in year 2/rate  of return-growth rate

value of the firm next year after the payout=$2.16/0.12-0.08

value of the firm next year after the payout=$ 54

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3 years ago
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Answer: Market Efficiency

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If a government is known to directly involve itself in the protection of institutions from failure, efficiency in institutions may become low because of the lack of fear of failure as companies believe that should they run into bad times, they will simply be bailed out by the government so there is no need for them to maintain a competitive edge.

This can lead to a situation where we have companies performing sub optimally in an economy which can only act to reduce the Economic growth of a country.

Government institutions usually have such backing and in a lot of countries are prone to failure. Look at the Bamangwato Concessions Limited (BCL) mine in Botswana for instance that kept failing and refusing to improve it's efficiency because they could always run back to the government for a bailout. Their position eventually became so untenable that bankruptcy was the only option.

3 0
3 years ago
If a company defaults on a loan, the organization that granted the loan may be able to seize the assets of the company.
mariarad [96]
This is indeed true
5 0
3 years ago
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