Answer:
c. 11.32; reject
Explanation:
The IRR is the rate at with net present value equals zero.
![\left[\begin{array}{cc}Period&Cash Flow\\0&-152,000\\1&+60,800\\2&+62,300\\3&+65,000\\4&0.113237029\\\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcc%7DPeriod%26Cash%20Flow%5C%5C0%26-152%2C000%5C%5C1%26%2B60%2C800%5C%5C2%26%2B62%2C300%5C%5C3%26%2B65%2C000%5C%5C4%260.113237029%5C%5C%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
To solve it you use excel or a financial calculator:
0.1132370
Because the IRR is lower than minimun aceptable rate of return, the project should be rejected.
Rule I is correct.
<u>Explanation:</u>
Year Cash flow Pv at 8% Discounted cash flow
0 100000 1 100000
1 26000 0.9259 24074.074
2 26000 0.8573 22290.809
3 26000 0.7938 20639.638
4 26000 0.7350 19110.776
5 26000 0.6806 17695.163
From the above calculation, the net present value is $203810.46
Option 1 Option 2
NPV 203810.5 200000
Payback 5 years 0 years
IRR No IRR No IRR
NPV (Net present value) option say that former would be selected
So, answer is Rule I only.
Answer:
Expected return = 21.9
%
Explanation:
<em>The capital asset pricing model is a risk-based model. Here, the return on equity is dependent on the level of reaction of the the equity to changes in the return on a market portfolio. These changes are captured as systematic risk. The magnitude by which a stock is affected by systematic risk is measured by beta</em>.
Under CAPM, Ke= Rf + β(Rm-Rf)
Rf-risk-free rate (long-term i.e 10 year treasury bill rate), β= Beta, Rm= Return on market., Ke- Return on equity (cost of equity)
This model can be used to work out the cost of equity as follows:
Ke= Rf + β (Rm-Rf)
Rf- 5%, β= 1.3, Rm- 18, E(r)- ?
Ke = 5% + 1.3×(18-5)%=21.9
%
Ke = 21.9
%
Expected return = 21.9
%
<span>The owners equity is the difference between the assets and liabilities of a company. To do this, one would add up all of their assets, including monetary, and add up all potential liabilities. The liabilities are then subtracted from the assets.</span>
