I did 132÷8 = 16.5 is that what you asking
Answer:
66 is 49.2537313% of 134
Step-by-step explanation:
so 49.26
Answer:
The marked price of an article is Rs. x, and selling price is Rs. y
Price difference = Rs. (x−y)
Now, on Rs. x, there is a discount of Rs. (x−y)
Thus, on Rs. 100, there will be a discount of Rs.
x
(x−y)
×100%.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
The probability of the success will be 0.3826.
<h3>What is binomial distribution?</h3>
Bernoulli's trials are those trials which end up randomly either on success (with probability p) or on failures (with probability 1- p = q (say))
The probability that out of n trials, there'd be x successes is given by
We have
n = 8
p = 0.1
q = 1 – 0.1 = 0.9
x = 1
Then we have
P(1) = ⁸C₁ x (0.1)¹ x (0.9)⁷
P(1) = 0.3826
Learn more about binomial distribution here:
brainly.com/question/13609688
#SPJ1