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sergejj [24]
3 years ago
13

Approach Company, which applies overhead to production on the basis of machine hours, reported the following data for the period

just ended: Actual units produced: 14,800 Actual fixed overhead incurred: $791,000 Standard fixed overhead rate: $13 per hour Budgeted fixed overhead: $780,000 Planned level of machine-hour activity: 60,000 If Approach estimates four hours to manufacture a completed unit, the company's fixed-overhead volume variance would be:
Business
1 answer:
Aliun [14]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: 10400 unfavorable

Explanation:

Firstly, we should note that the fixed overhead volume variance is the difference between the standard fixed overhead for actual output and the budgeted fixed overhead.

Budgeted fixed overhead = 780000

The standard fixed overhead for the actual output will be:

= Actual output × Number of hour per unit × the standard fixed overhead rate

= 14800 × 4 × 13

= 769,600

Then, the fixed overhead volume variance will be:

= 769600 - 780000

= 10400 Unfavorable

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Answer:

E. is accurately described by all of the above

Explanation:

  • The main difference is that the entrepreneurs took at the big picture and are more ideal,  innovative and risk-takers and focuses more on the startups and growth and spread of business and attempts to make profits
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A risk is something that causes the possibility of a loss.
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4 years ago
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Vincent and Jean are two cooks who work in a village. Each of them can either bake cakes or make pizzas. Every ingredient is rea
ElenaW [278]

Answer: B. Jean

Explanation:

Having Absolute Advantage in the production of a good means that you can produce more of that good given the same resources or at least the same Quantity as others given lower resources.

From the scenario above therefore, Jean has the Absolute Advantage in producing Cakes as Jean can bake 12 cakes in an hour while Vincent can only bake 10.

6 0
4 years ago
The rate of economic growth per capita in france from 1996 to 2000 was 1.9% per year, while in korea over the same period it was
bagirrra123 [75]

Answer:

36.83 years

16.85 years

$63,710.88

$ 71,490.43  

Explanation:

We can use the nper  formula in excel  to compute the doubling time for the capital real GDP of both countries

=nper(rate,pmt,-pv,fv)

FV is the future real GDP which $28,900*2=$57,800 for France while that of Korea is $25,400 ($12,700*2)

PV is the present real GDP

rate is the economic growth rate of 4.2% in Korea and 1.9% in France

France=nper(1.9%,0,-28900,57800)= 36.83  

Korea=nper(4.2%,0,-12700,25400)= 16.85  

In 2045 ,which is 42 years from now the real GDP are shown thus:

=fv(rate,nper,pmt,-pv)=fv(1.9%,42,0,-28900)=$63,710.88  

=fv(rate,nper,pmt,-pv)=fv(4.2%,42,0,-12700)=$ 71,490.43  

3 0
3 years ago
Cost of Goods Manufactured for a Manufacturing Company Two items are omitted from each of the following three lists of cost of g
solmaris [256]

Answer:

(A) 352,410

(B) 328,910

(C) 474,120

(D) 461,770

(E) 165,000

(F) 175,000

Explanation:

1.- WIP, August 1st:        $    19,660  $   41,650           (e)

2.- Cost added               $ 332,750        (c)         $ 1,075,000

3.- Subtotal                            (a)        $ 515,770  $ 1,240,000

4.- WIP, August 31th       $  23,500   $  54,000         (f)

5.- COGM                              (b)              (d)         $1,068,000

The identity to solve for this is as follow:

$$beginning WIP + cost added = COGM +  ending WIP

<u>The third row is the sum of the left side of the of the equation.</u>

beginning WIP + cost added.

(a) 332,750 + 19,660 = 352,410

(c) 515,770 - 41,650 = 474,120

(e) 1,240,000 - 1,075,000 = 165,000

COMG will be third row less fourth row

the ending WIP subtracted from the left side

(b) 352,410 - 23,500 = 328,910

(d) 515,770 - 54,000 =  461,770

(f) 1,240,000 - 1,068,000 = 175,000

8 0
3 years ago
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