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3 years ago

In order for someone to avoid a contract on the grounds of intoxication, the level of intoxication must have been:______.

Business

1 answer:

denpristay [2]3 years ago

6 0

Answer: so great that he didn't comprehend the nature of the agreement he was entering into.

Explanation:

An intoxicated person simply refers to someone who is under contractual incapacity due to the fact that there's ingestion of drugs or alcohol which brought about incompetence.

In order for someone to avoid a contract on the grounds of intoxication, the level of intoxication has to be so great that the person can't comprehend the nature of the agreement he or she was entering into.

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"a branding strategy in which a firm uses a different brand for each of its products is called ____ branding."

Aleksandr-060686 [28]

A branding strategy in which a firm uses a different brand for each of its products is called individual branding. With the use of this strategy, products from the same company are given a unique identity and name. This is especially useful when companies offer a wide range of products that cater different price markets.

8 0

3 years ago

Both Bond Sam and Bond Dave have 7.3 percent coupons, make semiannual payments, and are priced at par value. Bond Sam has three

Zarrin [17]

Answer:

Sam change: -5.13%

Dave change -18.01%

Explanation:

If interest rate increase by 2%

then the YTM of the bond will be 9.3%

We need eto calcualte the present value of the coupon and maturity of the bond at this new rate:

For the coupon payment we use the formula for ordinary annuity

$C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\$

Coupon payment: 1,000 x 7.3% / 2 payment per year: 36.50

time 6 (3 years x 2 payment per year)

YTM seiannual: 0.0465 (9.3% annual /2 = 4.65% semiannual)

$36.5 \times \frac{1-(1+0.0465)^{-6} }{0.0465} = PV\\$

PV $187.3546

For the maturity we calculate usign the lump sum formula:

$\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV$

Maturity: $ 1,000.00

time: 6 payment

rate: 0.0465

$\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.0465)^{6} } = PV$

PV 761.32

Now, we add both together:

PV coupon $187.3546 + PV maturity $761.3154 = $948.6700

now we calcualte the change in percentage:

948.67/1,000 - 1 = -0.051330026 = -5.13

For Dave we do the same:

$C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\$

C 36.50

time 40

rate 0.0465

$36.5 \times \frac{1-(1+0.0465)^{-40} }{0.0465} = PV\\$

PV $657.5166

$\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV$

Maturity 1,000.00

time 40.00

rate 0.0465

$\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.0465)^{40} } = PV$

PV 162.34

PV c $657.5166

PV m $162.3419

Total $819.8585

Change:

819.86 / 1,000 - 1 = -0.180141521 = -18.01%

6 0

3 years ago

The chart gives prices and output information for the country of Utopia. Use this information to calculate real and nominal GDP

skad [1K]

Answer: Nominal GDP 2016 = $7,100

REAL GDP 2016 = $3,700

Nominal GDP 2017 = $4,500

Real GDP 2017 = $4,500

Explanation:

To calculate the Nominal and Real GDPs we use the following formulas,

Nominal GDP = Sum of (Current Year Price x Current Year Quantity)

Real GDP = Sum of (Base Year Price x Current Year Quantity)

We make the assumption that 2017 is the base year so calculating would be,

Nominal GDP, 2016 = [(7 x 600) + (70 x 20) + (300 x 5)]

= $(4200 + 1400 + 1500)

= $7,100

Remember for this we will use 2017 as the base year so we will use 2017 prices

Real GDP, 2016 = [(3 x 600) + (20 x 20) + (300 x 5)]

= $(1800 + 400 + 1500)

= $3,700

Nominal GDP, 2017 = [(3 x 400) + (20 x 90) + (300 x 5)]

= $(1200 + 1800 + 1500)

= $4,500

Now seeing as 2017 is the base year, it's nominal and real GDPs will be the same.

Real GDP, 2017 = $[(3 x 400) + (20 x 90) + (300 x 5)]

= $(1200 + 1800 + 1500)

= $4,500

I included the details part of question so it is clearer.

If you have need any clarification do react or comment.

3 0

3 years ago

An interest rate that reflects the return required by a lender and paid by a borrower, expressed as a percentage of the principa

fiasKO [112]

An interest rate that reflects the return required by a lender and paid by a borrower expressed as a percentage of the principal borrowed is the Annual percentage rate.

Therefore, the statement given is True.

The annual percentage rate is the yearly cost of a loan to a borrower, including fees. The APR is a percentage that is expressed much like an interest rate. However, unlike an interest rate, it also includes other costs or fees such as mortgage insurance, the majority of closing costs, discount points, and loan origination fees. The cost of borrowing money annually, including fees, is stated as a percentage called the annual percentage rate. The APR is a more comprehensive indicator of how much borrowing money will cost you because it includes both interest rates and application costs.

The annual percentage rate (APR) represents the cost of borrowing money. Compared to the interest rate alone, it provides a more accurate picture of a loan's cost. It contains extra costs in addition to the interest rate and discount points. Although all expenditures aren't taken into account, lenders must use the same costs to determine the APR.

Learn to know more about the Annual percentage rate on

brainly.com/question/24715857

#SPJ4

6 0

1 year ago

Several years ago, a parent company acquired all of the outstanding common stock of its subsidiary for a purchase price of $400,

Alex787 [66]

Answer:

$750,000

Explanation:

Computation of the balance of the Equity Investment account on the parent's pre-consolidation balance sheet

EQUITY INVESTMENT ACCOUNT

Purchase price $400,000

Add Net income $400,000

Less Dividends ( $50,000 )

Balance of equity $750,000

($400,000+$400,000-$50,000)

Therefore the balance of the Equity Investment account on the parent's pre-consolidation balance sheet assuming that the Goodwill asset has not declined in value subsequent to the date of acquisition will be $750,000

8 0

3 years ago