Answer:
The answer is 20! : ) Hope this helps!!
Have a good day or night (wherever you are)!
Step-by-step explanation:
Step-by-step explanation:
1. Right
2. Right
3. Right
4. Right
5. Right
6. Right
7. Its not properly visible sorry for this.
8. Its wrong

9. Right
10. Its wrong

11. Right
12. Its wrong.... Bcz square of minus is plus

13. Right
14. According to the BODMAS rule..



15.



16.



<h3>Hope this helps u </h3>
... ✌️❤️
Answer:
The probability of selecting a family with exactly one male child is 1/4 or 0.25.
Step-by-step explanation:
Given in the question,
possible outcomes for the children's genders
{FFFF, FFFM, FFMF, FMFF, MFFF, MFFM, MFMF, MMFF, FFMM, FMFM, FMMF, FMMM, MFMM, MMFM, MMMF, MMMM}
= 16
To find,
the probability of selecting a family with exactly one male child
<h3>Probability = favourable outcomes / possible outcomes</h3>
favourable outcomes = {FFFM, FFMF, FMFF, MFFF}
= 4
Probability = 4 / 16
= 1 / 4
= 0.25
Answer:
F
Step-by-step explanation:
see attached image above