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Lilit [14]
2 years ago
9

Doogan Corporation makes a product with the following standard costs:

Business
1 answer:
AveGali [126]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Direct material quantity variance= $2,170 unfavorable

Explanation:

<u>To calculate the direct material quantity variance, we need to use the following formula:</u>

Direct material quantity variance= (standard quantity - actual quantity)*standard price

Direct material quantity variance= (2*5,000 - 10,310)*7

Direct material quantity variance= $2,170 unfavorable

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I WILL MARK THE BRAINLIEST HELP ME PLEASE
Harman [31]

Answer:

It's D im guessing

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Bond P is a premium bond with a coupon rate of 9 percent. Bond D has a coupon rate of 5 percent and is currently selling at a di
Firdavs [7]

Answer:

a) 7% as their market price will adjsut to give the same yield as the market

b) bond P = -10.17

 bonds D  = 10.07

Explanation:

we have to calcualte the price variation of the bonds from now (10 years to maturity) to next year (9 years)

Bond P

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 90.000

time 10

rate 0.07

90 \times \frac{1-(1+0.07)^{-10} }{0.07} = PV\\

PV $632.1223

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   1,000.00

time   10.00

rate  0.07

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.07)^{10} } = PV  

PV   508.35

PV c $632.1223

PV m  $508.3493

Total $1,140.4716

then, at time = 9

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 90.000

time 9

rate 0.07

90 \times \frac{1-(1+0.07)^{-9} }{0.07} = PV\\

PV $586.3709

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   1,000.00

time   9.00

rate  0.07

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.07)^{9} } = PV  

PV   543.93

PV c $586.3709

PV m  $543.9337

Total $1,130.3046

Capital loss: 1,130.30 - 1,140.47 = -10.17

We repeat the process for bond D

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 50.000

time 10

rate 0.07

50 \times \frac{1-(1+0.07)^{-10} }{0.07} = PV\\

PV $351.1791

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   1,000.00

time   10.00

rate  0.07

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.07)^{10} } = PV  

PV   508.35

PV c $351.1791

PV m  $508.3493

Total $859.5284

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 50.000

time 9

rate 0.07

50 \times \frac{1-(1+0.07)^{-9} }{0.07} = PV\\

PV $325.7616

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   1,000.00

time   9.00

rate  0.07

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.07)^{9} } = PV  

PV   543.93

PV c $325.7616

PV m  $543.9337

Total $869.6954

Capital gain: 869.70 - 859.53 = 10.07

6 0
3 years ago
Life insurance companies tend to invest in long-term assets such as loans to manufacturing firms to build factories or to real e
andriy [413]

Answer:

The answers are:

  1. automobile insurers
  2. life insurance companies
  3. a life insurance policy
  4. longer
  5. longer-term

Explanation:

When a company may need money in a short notice (like auto insurers), they will need to make liquid investments. That means that they can turn their investments into cash very rapidly. Since T-bills are traded all the time, they are very liquid investments, although they aren't very lucrative investments.

On the other hand, companies that know that they will not be needing a lot money promptly (life insurance), can afford to invest in projects with a longer life span that can be more profitable also. Usually liquid investments have smaller rates of return, while long term investments have higher rates of return.

4 0
2 years ago
The following information is available for the first month of operations of Lane Inc., a manufacturer of mechanical pencils:
aniked [119]

Answer:

a. Cost of goods sold = Sales - Gross profit

= $416,720 - $242,950

= $173,770

b. Direct materials cost = Materials purchased -Indirect materials - Materials inventory, end of period

= $128,350 - $45,220 - $17,090

= $66,060

c. Direct labor cost =Total manufacturing costs for the period - Direct materials cost - Factory overhead

= $239,610 - $66,060 - ($90,430 + $45,220 + $13,750)

= $239,610 - $66,060 - $149,380

=$239,610 - $215,440

=$24,170

7 0
3 years ago
The December 31, 2015, balance sheet of Maria’s Tennis Shop, Inc., showed current assets of $1,105 and current liabilities of $9
IrinaK [193]

Answer:

$165

Explanation:

The working capital of organization is the difference between the current assets and the current liabilities of the organization. It shows if a company has enough short term assets or asset that can be converted quickly to cash to settle obligations that will arise in the short term.

Working capital as at December 31, 2015

=$1,105 - $915

=$190

Working capital as at December 31, 2016

=$1,320 - $955

=$365

Change in working capital in 2016

= $365 - $190

= $165

5 0
3 years ago
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