The preferred stock effect is not a notion that can be used to explain abnormally high excess stock returns.
<h3>What is the preferred stock?</h3>
The term "stock" refers to a company's ownership or equity. Common stock and preferred stock are the two forms of equity. Preferred investors are entitled to more dividends or asset distributions than common stockholders. The specifics of each preferred stock vary depending on the issuance.
When it comes to dividends, preferred stockholders have a preference over ordinary stockholders, which typically yield more than common shares and might be paid monthly or quarterly. These dividends can be fixed or determined by reference to a benchmark interest rate, such as the London Interbank Offered Rate.
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brainly.com/question/28235296
Answer:
The number of CDs = 111.36
The number of movie videos = 242.72
N/B: I choose not to round up the answers.
Explanation:
The method used is the Lagrangian method. Basically, the optimization problem we are trying to solve is the utility function 
subject to the constraint
.
So the optimization problem(Lagrangian) is
,
where 
is a constant called the Lagrange multiplier.
To find the optimal consumption, we need to maximize the Lagrangian with respect to the variables 
. This we do by differentiating 
with respect to each variable and then equate to 0.
Equate (1) and (2), to get 
and substitute into (3) to get 
. Substituting into 
to get the corresponding value of 
.
If the temperature of chilled food deliveries is less than or equal to +5°C and frozen food is not greater than –18°C. Food which is delivered at the wrong temperature must be rejected, i hope this helped!
Answer: The Break-Even Point will reduce from $4,285.71 to $4,125
Explanation:
To get the Break-Even Point we can divide Fixed Assets by the Contribution margin.
The Contribution Margin is the Selling Price minus the Variable Cost.
For Scenario 1 the Break-Even Point will be,
= 15,000 / ( 6 - 2.50)
= $4,285.71
For Scenario 2 the Break-Even Point is,
= 16,500 / 6.5 -2.5
= $4,125
The Break-Even Point for Scenario 2 means that even though the higher Fixed Costs could have led to a higher Break-Even Point, the higher price contributed more than the fixed costs did and led to an ultimately lower Break-Even Point than the first Scenario.
