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3 years ago

What is the value of x in the equation x – y = 30, when y = 15?

Mathematics

2 answers:

vovikov84 [41]3 years ago

6 0

X should be 45
45-15=30

fomenos3 years ago

6 0

So you can plug in 15 and now the equation is x - 15 = 30. so then add 15 to 30 and so x is 45. you can plug in the numbers to see if it is correct. 45 - 15 does equal 30 so it is true. x = 45

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Mediam of 50+45+49+50+43+49+45+49+45+47+44+51+51+44+47+46+50+44+51+49+43+43+49+45+46+45+51+46

Doss [256]

Answer:

The median is equal 46.5

Step-by-step explanation:

to find the median, we will need to rearrange the numbers in ascending order, so we will have

43, 43, 43, 44, 44, 44, 45, 45, 45, 45, 45, 46, 46, 46, 47, 47, 49, 49, 49, 49, 49, 50, 50, 50, 51, 51, 51, 51

Note that there are 28 numbers in total, therefore the median will fall in between the fourteenth and the fifteenth number which are 46 and 47 respectively.

Since we are considering two figures as median, we will need to find the average, which will be

(46 + 47)/2 = 46.5

The median is therefore 46.5

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Arte-miy333 [17]

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AlekseyPX

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

What's a simplified form of x-1+4+7x-3

Dovator [93]

Ok so right now leave the x's alone. Now add/subtract the numbers without variables which would equal to 0 since -1+4 = 3 and 3-3 =0

now 7x+x =8x so 8x is answer

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3 years ago

The probability that a grader will make a marking error on any particular question of a multiple-choice exam is 0.15. If there a

sashaice [31]

Answer:

$P(X=0)=(10C10)(0.15)^{0} (1-0.15)^{10-0}=0.1969$

$P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X$

$P(X=0)=(nCn)(p)^{0} (1-p)^{n-0}=(1-p)^n$

$P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

A Bernoulli trial is "a random experiment with exactly two possible outcomes, "success" and "failure", in which the probability of success is the same every time the experiment is conducted". And this experiment is a particular case of the binomial experiment.

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

The complement rule is a theorem that provides a connection between the probability of an event and the probability of the complement of the event. Lat A the event of interest and A' the complement. The rule is defined by: $P(A)+P(A') =1$

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=10, p=0.15)$

what is the probability that no errors are made?

For this case means that all the questions were correct so we want this probability:

$P(X=0)=(10C10)(0.15)^{0} (1-0.15)^{10-0}=0.1969$

what is the probability that at least one error made?

For this case we want this probability:

$P(X \geq 1)$

And we can use the complement rule:

$P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X$

If there are n questions and the probability of a marking error is p rather than 0.15, give expressions for the probabilities of no errors and at least one error

$P(X=0)=(nCn)(p)^{0} (1-p)^{n-0}=(1-p)^n$

$P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X$

8 0

3 years ago