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Yuki888 [10]
4 years ago
7

Antwan determines the distance between the points –7 and 2 on a numberline. Maggie determines the difference between the numbers

–7 and 2. How are Antwan’s and Maggie’s solutions related?
Maggie’s solution is the absolute value of Antwan’s solution.
Antwan’s solution is the absolute value of Maggie’s solution.
Both solutions are greater than either of the two numbers in the problem.
Both solutions are less than either of the two numbers in the problem.
Mathematics
2 answers:
Orlov [11]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Their solutions are related because they both are |9| (the absolute value of 9)

Step-by-step explanation:

Sophie [7]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Antwan’s solution is the absolute value of Maggie’s solution.

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1. If 40% of a number is 56, what was the original number?
Setler79 [48]

Answer:

140

I am not completely sure but what i did was

56/? = 40/100

56*100

5600/40

140

7 0
3 years ago
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Michael works 30 hours per week and makes $15.00 per hour. How much does he make in a 4-week month?
Wewaii [24]

Answer:

$1,800

Step-by-step explanation:

If Michael works 30 hours a week for $15 an hour we can use the equation:

15 x 30 = 450.

Now just multiply the given answer by 4 and you're left with:

450 x 4 = 1800.

4 0
3 years ago
What does X equal? 14x+24=18x-32
exis [7]

Answer:

x =14

Step-by-step explanation:

14x+24=18x-32

Subtract 14x from each side

14x-14x+24=18x-14x-32

24 = 4x -32

Add 32 from each side

24+32=4x-32+32

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Divide each side by 4

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3 0
3 years ago
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Find the odds for and the odds against the event rolling a fair die and getting a 1, a 4,or a 5
slega [8]

Answer:

Odds for = Odds against = 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

In a fair die, we have {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} and $ n(S) = 6 $

{1, 4, 5} and {2, 3, 6} constitute the entire sample space.

So, Probability of getting a 1 or a 4 or a 5

= Probability of getting a 1 +

Probability of getting a 4 +

Probability of getting a 5

= $ \frac{1}{6} + \frac{1}{6} + \frac{1}{6} $

=$ \frac{3}{6} = \frac{1}{2} $

Therefore, Odds for 1 or 4 or 5 = $ \frac{1}{2} $.

Since, Probability of getting a number between 1 and 6 is 1 and Probability of getting a number from 2 or 3 or 6 = $ \frac{1}{2} $, we have:

Probability of not getting a 1 or 4 or 5 = 1 - $ \frac{1}{2} $

= $ \frac{1}{2} $

Hence, odds for and odds against = $ \frac{1}{2} $

8 0
3 years ago
Hi please help. Thank you!
Anarel [89]

Answer: -1 1/4 - (-1/2) = -3/4

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
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