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vivado [14]
2 years ago
9

PLEASE HELP AND HURRY PLEASE

Mathematics
1 answer:
nikklg [1K]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

a) 20

Step-by-step explanation:

2 hours at 50 km/h means she went 100 km

so 100/5= 20km/hr

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The average number of annual trips per family to amusement parks in the UnitedStates is Poisson distributed, with a mean of 0.6
IrinaK [193]

Answer:

a) 0.5488 = 54.88% probability that the family did not make a trip to an amusement park last year.

b) 0.3293 = 32.93% probability that the family took exactly one trip to an amusement park last year.

c) 0.1219 = 12.19% probability that the family took two or more trips to amusement parks last year.

d) 0.8913 = 89.13% probability that the family took three or fewer trips to amusement parks over a three-year period.

e) 0.1912 = 19.12% probability that the family took exactly four trips to amusement parks during a six-year period.

Step-by-step explanation:

In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}

In which

x is the number of sucesses

e = 2.71828 is the Euler number

\mu is the mean in the given interval.

Poisson distributed, with a mean of 0.6 trips per year

This means that \mu = 0.6n, in which n is the number of years.

a.The family did not make a trip to an amusement park last year.

This is P(X = 0) when n = 1, so \mu = 0.6.

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}

P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-0.6}*(0.6)^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.5488

0.5488 = 54.88% probability that the family did not make a trip to an amusement park last year.

b.The family took exactly one trip to an amusement park last year.

This is P(X = 1) when n = 1, so \mu = 0.6.

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}

P(X = 1) = \frac{e^{-0.6}*(0.6)^{1}}{(1)!} = 0.3293

0.3293 = 32.93% probability that the family took exactly one trip to an amusement park last year.

c.The family took two or more trips to amusement parks last year.

Either the family took less than two trips, or it took two or more trips. So

P(X < 2) + P(X \geq 2) = 1

We want

P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2)

In which

P(X < 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.5488 + 0.3293 = 0.8781

P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2) = 1 - 0.8781 = 0.1219

0.1219 = 12.19% probability that the family took two or more trips to amusement parks last year.

d.The family took three or fewer trips to amusement parks over a three-year period.

Three years, so \mu = 0.6(3) = 1.8.

This is

P(X \leq 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3)

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}

P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-1.8}*(1.8)^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.1653

P(X = 1) = \frac{e^{-1.8}*(1.8)^{1}}{(1)!} = 0.2975

P(X = 2) = \frac{e^{-1.8}*(1.8)^{2}}{(2)!} = 0.2678

P(X = 3) = \frac{e^{-1.8}*(1.8)^{3}}{(3)!} = 0.1607

P(X \leq 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) = 0.1653 + 0.2975 + 0.2678 + 0.1607 = 0.8913

0.8913 = 89.13% probability that the family took three or fewer trips to amusement parks over a three-year period.

e.The family took exactly four trips to amusement parks during a six-year period.

Six years, so \mu = 0.6(6) = 3.6.

This is P(X = 4). So

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}

P(X = 4) = \frac{e^{-3.6}*(3.6)^{4}}{(4)!} = 0.1912

0.1912 = 19.12% probability that the family took exactly four trips to amusement parks during a six-year period.

4 0
3 years ago
1/5 (4-3x) = 1/7 (3x - 4)<br><br> pls solve it pls pls
8_murik_8 [283]

Answer:

x=4/3

Step-by-step explanation:

In pic

(hope this helps can I pls have brainlist (crown)☺️)

4 0
3 years ago
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Oduvanchick [21]

Answer:

Advantages of quantum mechanics include explaining phenomena found in nature as well as developing technologies that rely upon quantum effects, like lasers.


Step-by-step explanation:

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-NaomiTheGenuis

7 0
2 years ago
Whoever responds first will get marked best!!!!Elise's math class has 11 female students and 10 male students. Write the ratio o
nadezda [96]
10:21
There are 10 males and males plus females equal 21
4 0
3 years ago
I need some help please
MariettaO [177]
Ok so what you will do is 3-18 then you will add 1 and make is to 400X1
4 0
2 years ago
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