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Leto [7]
3 years ago
6

Does anyone know this?

Physics
1 answer:
Radda [10]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

999990900

Explanation:

lololo

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A train travels 8.81 m/s in a -51.0° direction.
Bad White [126]

The displacement of the train after 2.23 seconds is 25.4 m.

<h3>Resultant velocity of the train</h3>

The resultant velocity of the train is calculated as follows;

R² = vi² + vf² - 2vivf cos(θ)

where;

  • θ is the angle between the velocity = (90 - 51) + 37 = 76⁰

R² = 8.81² + 9.66² - 2(8.81 x 9.66) cos(76)

R² = 129.75

R = √129.75

R = 11.39 m/s

<h3>Displacement of the train</h3>

The displacement of the train is the change in position of the train after a given period of time.

The displacement is calculated as follows;

Δx = vt

Δx = 11.39 m/s x 2.23 s

Δx = 25.4 m

Thus, the displacement of the train after 2.23 seconds is 25.4 m.

Learn more about displacement here: brainly.com/question/2109763

#SPJ1

5 0
2 years ago
- A particular light source gives off light waves with a measured wavelength of
skad [1K]

Answer:

f = 1.5 x 10¹⁵ Hz

Explanation:

Light is an electromagnetic wave and we know that the speed of light is a constant which is 

3 x 10⁸ m/s.

Knowing this; v = λ x f

λ = wavelength

f= frequency of light

v = seed of light

f = v/λ

f =  3 x 10⁸m/s / 2.0 x 10-⁷ m

f = 1.5 x 10¹⁵ Hz

8 0
2 years ago
Give a simple explanation why the pressure changes by this factor.Word Bank:1. two2.greater3.smaller4.four5.eightDoubling the sp
diamong [38]

Answer

speed of the molecules

s₁ = v t

when velocity is doubled

s₂ = (2 v)t

   = 2 s₁

they will hit the wall of container two times as often.

the momentum of molecule

p₁ = mvr

p₂ = m(2v)r = 2(mvr)

    = 2 p₁

the momentum change is two times as great.

force is change in momentum

Δp = F(Δt)

mv-(-mv) = 2 mv

F = \dfrac{2 mv}{\Delta t}

F α v

therefore average force impart to the wall on each collision is two times

p = \dfrac{F_{total}}{A}

p = \dfrac{Nmv^2}{3LA}

p α v²

here the velocity is doubled it means pressure becomes four times.

6 0
3 years ago
Tennis balls traveling at greater than 100 mph routinely bounce off tennis rackets. At some sufficiently high speed, however, th
Kipish [7]

Answer:

Probability of tunneling is 10^{- 1.17\times 10^{32}}

Solution:

As per the question:

Velocity of the tennis ball, v = 120 mph = 54 m/s

Mass of the tennis ball, m = 100 g = 0.1 kg

Thickness of the tennis ball, t = 2.0 mm = 2.0\times 10^{- 3}\ m

Max velocity of the tennis ball, v_{m} = 200\ mph = 89 m/s

Now,

The maximum kinetic energy of the tennis ball is given by:

KE = \frac{1}{2}mv_{m}^{2} = \frac{1}{2}\times 0.1\times 89^{2} = 396.05\ J

Kinetic energy of the tennis ball, KE' = \frac{1}{2}mv^{2} = 0.5\times 0.1\times 54^{2} = 154.8\ m/s

Now, the distance the ball can penetrate to is given by:

\eta = \frac{\bar{h}}{\sqrt{2m(KE - KE')}}

\bar{h} = \frac{h}{2\pi} = \frac{6.626\times 10^{- 34}}{2\pi} = 1.0545\times 10^{- 34}\ Js

Thus

\eta = \frac{1.0545\times 10^{- 34}}{\sqrt{2\times 0.1(396.05 - 154.8)}}

\eta = \frac{1.0545\times 10^{- 34}}{\sqrt{2\times 0.1(396.05 - 154.8)}}

\eta = 1.52\times 10^{-35}\ m

Now,

We can calculate the tunneling probability as:

P(t) = e^{\frac{- 2t}{\eta}}

P(t) = e^{\frac{- 2\times 2.0\times 10^{- 3}}{1.52\times 10^{-35}}} = e^{-2.63\times 10^{32}}

P(t) = e^{-2.63\times 10^{32}}

Taking log on both the sides:

logP(t) = -2.63\times 10^{32} loge

P(t) = 10^{- 1.17\times 10^{32}}

6 0
3 years ago
Assume that a uniform magnetic field is directed into thispage. If an electron is released with an initial velocity directedfrom
Feliz [49]

Answer:

B). to the right

Explanation:

Since the direction of magnetic field is into the page

So here we know that

B = B_o(-\hat k)

now the velocity is from bottom to top

so we have

v = v_o \hat j

now the force on the moving charge is given as

\vec F = q(\vec v \times \vec B)

now we have

\vec F = (-e)(v_o \hat j \times B_o(-\hat k))

\vec F = e v_o B \hat i

so force will be towards Right

7 0
3 years ago
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