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Nostrana [21]
3 years ago
7

FIRST TO ANSWER GETS A BRAINLEIST

Mathematics
1 answer:
Mama L [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:No

Step-by-step explanation:

They come out to different answers

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The expression cosine of pi over 2 times cosine of pi over 3 plus sine of pi over 2 times sine of pi over 3 can be rewritten as
9966 [12]

Solution:

Given;

\cos\frac{\pi}{2}\cos\frac{\pi}{3}+\sin\frac{\pi}{2}\sin\frac{\pi}{3}

Using the identities;

Thus;

\begin{gathered} \cos\frac{\pi}{2}\cos\frac{\pi}{3}+\sin\frac{\pi}{2}\sin\frac{\pi}{3}=\cos(\frac{\pi}{2}-\frac{\pi}{3}) \\  \\ \cos\frac{\pi}{2}\cos\frac{\pi}{3}+\sin\frac{\pi}{2}\sin\frac{\pi}{3}=\cos(\frac{\pi}{6}) \end{gathered}

CORRECT OPTION: A

6 0
1 year ago
4 divide by 3,678 <br> 7 divide by 4,983
zysi [14]
4 divided by 3,678= 0.00108754758
7 divided by 4,983=0.00140477623
8 0
4 years ago
A. Tai, Jorge,mike Gwen
scoray [572]
D. since 11% in decimal is 0.11 only. 1/9 in decimal is 0.111111111... 0.12 jorge and 1/8 in decimal is 0.125
4 0
3 years ago
What ks the % of 4 = 2​
Fittoniya [83]

Answer:

50\%

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x be the percentage then...

x\%(4)=2

Start by dividing both sides by 4:

x\%=\frac{2}{4}

Simplify the fraction:

x\%=\frac{1}{2}

Then, multiply the fraction by 50/50, so we can get a number over 100 (that number would be the percentage). Note we can only multiply it by 50/50 since it is essentially multiplying the fraction by 1.

x\%=\frac{1}{2}*\frac{50}{50}\\x\%=\frac{50}{100}\\x=50\%

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Gary Oak is on a mission to complete his Pokedex before Ash Ketchum. To this end, he startssearching the tall grass for Pokemon.
bazaltina [42]

Answer:

Variance Σ i=1 (1 - Pi) /Pi^2

Expected value= π(1/1 + 1/2 .......... 1/n) = π.Hn

Step-by-step explanation:

From the information given, we can get

E(T) = E(t1) + E(t2) ......... +E(tn)

1/P1 + 1/P2.......... 1/Pn

-π/r + π/ r-1 +........... π/1

π(1/1 + 1/2 .......... 1/n)

To find the variance,

Variance= var (x1 + x2......... +xr)

E i=1 var (Xi)

Where,

x1, x2, x3 ........... are all independent of each other.

In case of xi : var (xi) = E(xi^2) - E(xi^2)

Probability of the ith term of coupon that would be observed

Pi = (n - i - 1)/n

Therefore,

i-1 coupons out of a total of n coupons.

To calculate Exi, probability Pi

The expected number of coupons required should be = 1

In probability, 1 - Pi expected number of coupons required E (Xi +1)

E(Xi) = Pi + (1- Pi) E(xi + 1)

E(Xi) = 1/Pi

Due to the above,

E(Xi)^2= Pi + (1- Pi) E(xi + 1)^2

E(Xi)^2= Pi + (1- Pi) E(xi^2 + 1 + 2xi)

E(Xi)^2= 2/Pi^2 - 1/Pi

Var (Xi) = 2/Pi^2 - 1/Pi - 1/Pi^2

= (1 - Pi) /Pi^2

Variance Σ i=1 (1 - Pi) /Pi^2

6 0
3 years ago
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