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Elanso [62]
3 years ago
7

PLEASE HELP The function in the table is quadratic: TRUE FALSE

Mathematics
2 answers:
Likurg_2 [28]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

False

Step-by-step explanation:

The slope is the same between all pounts which means the function is linear.

Hope this helps!

valentinak56 [21]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

False

Step-by-step explanation:

Each f(x) increases by 8 therefore this equation is a linear function. If you where to graph it would be a straight line

Hope this helped :)

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What is the value of 5+-12=
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Answer:

It would be -7

Step-by-step explanation:

The 12 is negative, so instead of adding, you would subtract 5.

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The purchase price of a car is $22,500.00 and the 5 year loan has a 10% down payment and an annual interest rate of 6.75%. What
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$398.59

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
For each given p, let ???? have a binomial distribution with parameters p and ????. Suppose that ???? is itself binomially distr
pshichka [43]

Answer:

See the proof below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming this complete question: "For each given p, let Z have a binomial distribution with parameters p and N. Suppose that N is itself binomially distributed with parameters q and M. Formulate Z as a random sum and show that Z has a binomial distribution with parameters pq and M."

Solution to the problem

For this case we can assume that we have N independent variables X_i with the following distribution:

X_i Bin (1,p) = Be(p) bernoulli on this case with probability of success p, and all the N variables are independent distributed. We can define the random variable Z like this:

Z = \sum_{i=1}^N X_i

From the info given we know that N \sim Bin (M,q)

We need to proof that Z \sim Bin (M, pq) by the definition of binomial random variable then we need to show that:

E(Z) = Mpq

Var (Z) = Mpq(1-pq)

The deduction is based on the definition of independent random variables, we can do this:

E(Z) = E(N) E(X) = Mq (p)= Mpq

And for the variance of Z we can do this:

Var(Z)_ = E(N) Var(X) + Var (N) [E(X)]^2

Var(Z) =Mpq [p(1-p)] + Mq(1-q) p^2

And if we take common factor Mpq we got:

Var(Z) =Mpq [(1-p) + (1-q)p]= Mpq[1-p +p-pq]= Mpq[1-pq]

And as we can see then we can conclude that   Z \sim Bin (M, pq)

8 0
3 years ago
Consider the diagram.
damaskus [11]
Side Side Side is the answer
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Write the following expressions in standard form.
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Write the folowing in standard form and you well get 
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#2 is b−8x+<span>4</span>
5 0
3 years ago
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