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3 years ago

11

One day less than 3 weeks?

1 answer:

max2010maxim [7]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

20 Days

Explanation:

21 Days = 3 Weeks

Minus 1, that is 20 days.

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How do i plot the points

katovenus [111]

1). In order to graph slope, you need to do rise
------------
run

2). First, plot your y intercept on the y axis. In your case, the y intercept is 2.

3). From that point, move up 3 units and to the right 4 units to graph your slope. If the slope was negative, you would move up three units and to the left 4 units.

I hope this helps you to understand the process of graphing lines in slope intercept form better!

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3 years ago

Expan and simplify the following expression:<br> 3(2a + 3)(2a - 1) - 4 (a^2 - 7)

Mekhanik [1.2K]

= 3(4a^2 + 4a - 3) - 4a^2 + 28
= 12a^2 + 12a - 9 - 4a^2 + 28
= 8a^2 + 12a + 19
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3 years ago

Find the slope of line passing through the two points, (3, -4) and (1, 2).

mariarad [96]

Answer:

m = -3

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for slope is $m=\frac{y2-y1}{x2-x1}$

So use the x's and y's from the given points to solve for m

(3, -4) (1, 2)

$m=\frac{2-(-4)}{1-3}$

$m= \frac{6}{-2}$

$m=-3$

6 0

4 years ago

Help me again. i need help. thx 4 helping

VARVARA [1.3K]

Answer:

16 square units

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for the area of a right triangle is ab/2 (a and b both being legs).

First, we find the legs' length which is MK and JK.

Since both points J and K are on the same y level, we look at the X coordinates and see how far apart they are.

Since both points M and K are on the same x level, we look at the Y coordinate.

M is 4 points away from K, so the leg MK is 4 units long.

J is 8 points away from K, so the leg JK is 8 units long.

Plug this into the formula and we get

$\frac{4*8}{2}$

$\frac{32}{2} = 16$

8 0

3 years ago

13. Here is an interesting exponential function, y=1^x. Complete the table with integer values of x from 0 to 4. Then graph the

zimovet [89]

Answer:

see the attachment for a table and graph

Step-by-step explanation:

The value of y is 1 for any value of x. The equation is equivalent to y=1.

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4 years ago