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scoray [572]
3 years ago
11

Helpppppppppppppppppppppppppppppppppppppppppp

Mathematics
1 answer:
Goryan [66]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

1/32

explanation:

i think its this because when u divide 32 with 8 its 4 and since theirs 1 as the numerater for both.

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