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DaniilM [7]
3 years ago
15

Please answer the question below

Mathematics
2 answers:
alexira [117]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

11

Step-by-step explanation:

LUCKY_DIMON [66]3 years ago
3 0
11 Hope it helps you
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Answer:

1

+

sec

2

(

x

)

sin

2

(

x

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Start on the left side.

1

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x

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Convert to sines and cosines.

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1

+

1

cos

2

(

x

)

sin

2

(

x

)

Write  

sin

2

(

x

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as a fraction with denominator  

1

.

1

+

1

cos

2

(

x

)

⋅

sin

2

(

x

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1

Combine.

1

+

1

sin

2

(

x

)

cos

2

(

x

)

⋅

1

Multiply  

sin

(

x

)

2

by  

1

.

1

+

sin

2

(

x

)

cos

2

(

x

)

⋅

1

Multiply  

cos

(

x

)

2

by  

1

.

1

+

sin

2

(

x

)

cos

2

(

x

)

Apply Pythagorean identity in reverse.

1

+

1

−

cos

2

(

x

)

cos

2

(

x

)

Simplify.

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1

cos

2

(

x

)

Now consider the right side of the equation.

sec

2

(

x

)

Convert to sines and cosines.

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1

2

cos

2

(

x

)

One to any power is one.

1

cos

2

(

x

)

Because the two sides have been shown to be equivalent, the equation is an identity.

1

+

sec

2

(

x

)

sin

2

(

x

)

=

sec

2

(

x

)

is an identity

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
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