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Klio2033 [76]
3 years ago
12

Some one pls help me with this

Mathematics
1 answer:
MrMuchimi3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

JKL=127°

BEF=63°

m 1=90°

CBY=66°

Step-by-step explanation:

JKL:

the two lines are parallel and cut by one line so the corresponding angles just be the same.

BEF:

(7x-14)=4x+19

add 14 to each side

7x=4x+33

subtract 4x from each side

3x=33

divide each side by 3

x=11

implement that into 4x+19

4(11)+19

44+19

63

m 1:

Since the congruent angles is 90 and 90 + m 1= 180° the m 1 has to be 90°

3x+9+6x=180 since they are corresponding angles on a parallel line and corresponding angles must equal 180° in total

9x+9=180

subtract 9

9x=171

divide each side by 9

x=19

3(19)+9

66°

Hope this helps! If you have any questions on how I got my answer feel free to ask. Stay safe!

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Answer:

(-\infty,+\infty)

Step-by-step explanation:

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y=\sqrt[3]{x+8}

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We solve for x to obtain;

y^3=x+8

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This is a polynomial function in y.

x is defined for all values of y.

Therefore the range is all real numbers.

or

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Each has an equal probability of occurring, meaning that they each have a 50% chance to occur. (They need to add up to 100% because they include all the outcomes, divide that into two equal parts and...)

This is what we call theoretical probability. It's a guess as to how probability <em>should</em> work. Like in the experiment, it's not always going to be 50-50.

What <em>actually happens</em> is called experimental probability. This may vary slightly from theoretical probability because you can't predict probability with complete certainty, you can only say what is <em>most likely to happen</em>.

We want to find the probability of getting heads in our experiment so we can compare it to the theoretical outcome. To do this, we need to compare the number of heads to the total number of outcomes.

We have 63 heads, and a total of 150 coin flips.
That makes the probability of getting a heads 63/150.
The hard part is getting this ratio into a percent.

You can try simply dividing, but you should be able to notice something here.
SInce the top and the bottom of our fraction are both divisible by 3, we can <em>simiplify</em>.
63 ÷ 3 = 21
150 ÷ 3 = 50
So we could say that 63/150 = 21/50.

A percent is basically a fraction out of 100.
Just like you can divide the parts of a ratio by the same number and it will stay the same, you can also multiply. To get the fraction out of 100, let's multiply by 2.
(since 50 × 2 = 100)

21 × 2 = 42
50 × 2 = 100
21/50 = 42/100 = 42%

Comparing our experimental probability to the theoretical one...it is 8% lower.
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