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Mashcka [7]
3 years ago
11

A person places $686 in an investment account earning an annual rate of 3.8%, compounded continuously. Using the formula V = Pe^

{rt}V=Pe rt , where V is the value of the account in t years, P is the principal initially invested, e is the base of a natural logarithm, and r is the rate of interest, determine the amount of money, to the nearest cent, in the account after 15 years.
Mathematics
1 answer:
kykrilka [37]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

V = $1213.03

Step-by-step explanation:

We can determine the amount of money after 15 years with the given formula:

V = Pe^{rt}   (1)

Where:

V: is the value of the account in t years =?

P: is the principal initially invested = $686                

r: is the rate of interest = 3.8% = 3.8/100 = 0.038

t: is the time = 15 years

By substituting the above values into equation (1) we have:

V = Pe^{rt} = 686*e^{(0.038*15)} = 1213.03  

               

Therefore, the amount of money is $1213.03.

I hope it helps you!  

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Answer:

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Therefore, the area is length × height, which is 0.05 ×1 = 0.05.

Second case, the probability that p is less than 0.95 would then be one minus the probability that p is greater than 0.95, so 1 - 0.05 = 0.95

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Step-by-step explanation:

With the use of probability distribution, the probability that the equipment performs has a uniform distribution with minimum 0 and maximum 1.

a) The graph of the probability distribution will be 0 outside of the range of 0 to 1, so therefore y = 0. Inside the interval from 0 to 1, it will be constant (which is a horizontal line) with height 1÷(1-0) = 1, therefore y = 1.

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c) Since the probability distribution is rectangular, you can find probabilities by recalling the area of a rectangle which is: area = length × breadth.

In the first instance, the probability that p > 0.95 would mean that we are looking for the area of the rectangle with a height of 1 between 0.95 and 1, which implies it has length 0.05.

Therefore, the area is length × breadth, which is 0.05 ×1 = 0.05.

In the second case, the probability that p is less than 0.95 would then be one minus the probability that p is greater than 0.95, so 1 - 0.05 = 0.95.

d) If it is known that p is between 0.90 and 0.95, without the value, then we would assume that p has a uniform distribution between 0.90 and 0.95 since p originally had a uniform distribution.

In this case,

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