Answer:
The bonds were issued at $87,590,959
Explanation:
The bonds will be issued at the present value of the coupon and maturity discounted by the market rate
C 6,000,000.000 ( 100 million x 6%)
time 30 (2051 - 2021)
market rate 7% = 7/100 = 0.07
PV $74,454,247.1010
PV of the maturity
Maturity 100,000,000.00
time 30.00
rate 0.07
PV 13,136,711.72
Total current value of the bonds:
PV coupon $ 74,454,247.1010
PV maturity $<u> 13,136, 711.7155 </u>
Total $87,590,958.8165
Answer:
Do = $2.00
D1= Do(1+g)1 = $2(1+0.2)1 = $2.40
D2= Do(1+g)2 = $2(1+0.2)2 = $2.88
D3= Do(1+g)3 = $2(1+0.2)3 = $3.456
D4= Do(1+g)4 = $2(1+0.2)4 = $4.1472
D5= Do(1+g)5 = $2(1+0.2)5 = $4.97664
PHASE 1
V1 = D1/1+ke + D2/(1+ke)2 + D3/(1+ke)3 +D4/(1+ke)4 + D5/(1+ke)5
V1 = 2.40/(1+0.15) + 2.88/(1+0.15)2 + 3.456/(1+0.15)3 + 4.1472/(1+0.15)4 + 4.97664/(1+0.15)5
V1 = $2.0870 + $2.1777 + $2.2723 + $2.3712 + $2.4742
V1 = $11.3824
PHASE 2
V2 = DN(1+g)/ (Ke-g )(1+k e)n
V2 = $4.97664(1+0.02)/(0.15-0.02)(1+0.02)5
V2 = $5.0762/0.1435
V2 = $35.3742
Po = V1 + V2
Po = $11.3824 + $35.3742
Po = $46.76
Explanation: This is a typical question on valuation of shares with two growth rate regimes. In the first phase, the value of the share would be obtained by capitalizing the dividend for each year by the cost of equity of the company. The dividend for year 1 to year 5 was obtained by subjecting the current dividend paid(Do) to growth rate. The growth rate In the first regime was 20%.
In the second phase, the value of shares would be calculated by taking cognizance of the second growth rate of 2%. In this phase, the last dividend paid in year 5 would be discounted at the appropriate discount rate after it has been adjusted for growth.
Answer:The cost of capital that will make both investments equal is 17.045%
Explanation:
Investment A
$1.5 million will be received in perpetuity we can there use perpetuity formula to Value investment A.
Value of Investment A = 1500 000/r
Investment B
$1.2 Million will be received in Investment B with a growth rate of 3% will then use Gordon's growth rate model to value investment B.
Value of investment B = (1200 000 x (1+0.03))/(r - 0.03)
Value of investment B = 1236000/(r - 0.03)
1500 000/r = 1236000/(r - 0.03)
1236000(r) = 1500000(r - 0.03)
(r - 0.03) = 1236000( r)/1500000
r - 0.03 = 0.824r
r - 0.824r = 0.03 = 0.176r = 0.03
r = 0.03/0.176 = 0.170454545
R = 17.045%
The cost of capital that will make both investments to be equal is 17.045%
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In French, "laissez-faire" literally means "let someone do what they want". The origins of laissez-faire are associated with his group of 18th-century French economists, the Physiocrats, who believed that government policy should not interfere with the running of the natural economy.
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If i am correct then the answer should be true letter b.)
