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Lera25 [3.4K]
2 years ago
7

What percent of 42 is 32

Mathematics
1 answer:
Radda [10]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

76%

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to find the answer to this question you must divide the output of dividing 42 and 32 by 100 to receive the answer.

42/32

42/32=1.3125    

100=1.3125*x      

100/1.3125=x

76.1904761905=x

x=76.1904761905

Hope this helps.

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f(x) = x2 – p(x + 1) – c, then (α + 1)(β + 1)f(x) = x2 – p(x + 1) – c, then (α + 1)(β + 1)f(x) = x2 – p(x + 1) – c, then (α + 1)(β + 1)f(x) f(x) = x2 – p(x + 1) – c, then (α + 1)(β + 1)p(x + 1) – c, then (α + 1)(β + 1)f(x) = x2 – p(xf(x) = x2 – p(x + 1) – c, then (α + 1)(β + 1) + 1) – c, then (α + 1)(β + 1)f(x) = x2 – p(xf(x) = x2 – p(x + 1) – c, then (α + 1)(β + 1) + 1) – c, then (α + 1)(β + 1)f(x) = x2 – p(x + 1) – c, then (α + 1)(β + 1)

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