1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
IRINA_888 [86]
3 years ago
14

Final Draft

History
2 answers:
Mama L [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Despite administering the Executive Order 9066 to Japanese, it was, ironically, condemned almost 70 percent of imprisoned Japanese but American Citizens. It was supposed to be the first blow of the US to the Japanese after declaring war and it resulted to incarceration of 120,000 Japanese. They were brought in wartime camps and suspend the their rights under Fifth Amendment.

It's the seventh of December, 1941, and a Japanese family sits at the table for dinner. Little do they know however, these following dinners will be their last meals together. In the coming days, the American government will execute Order 9066 act at the order of President Franklin Roosevelt, authorizing all evacuation of persons of Japanese descent. However many people believe Roosevelt's actions to be warranted in the name of public safety, and the sacrifice of those in camps is justified by the risk of just one of them being against the American people.

People who believe this will often state Roosevelt was justified because after the Japanese attacked Pearl Harbor, the fear, hatred and outrage against the Japanese Americans grew and it was a common belief that the Japanese Americans had helped them to plan the attack. They also mention Roosevelt was justified because Article Two grants him authority to issue executive order.

Despite those beliefs, Roosevelt was objectively wrong in his activation of executive order 9066. Addressing the first claim, while it was true many Americans were fearful of the Japanese, they did not only intern the Japanese, but rather they also interned thousands of german and Italian Americans. So although they were fearful of the Japanese, fear was clearly not the only reason they interned innocent American civilians.

Concerning the second point, Roosevelt was technically justified because Article Two grants him authority to issue executive order, however it can also be considered as unjustified because he doubted the intentions of millions of people who were American citizens. They were suspected because of their  ancestry.

while at first, the impulsive mind might believe that Roosevelt was justified in interning millions of Americans, however that is clearly not the case. Order 9066 was a cruel unjustified order that ruined many Americans lives and separated them from their family.

Explanation:

Lilit [14]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Was President Roosevelt justified in ordering Executive Order 9066? No, he was not. All it did was result in the internment of Japanese American citizens, even though that wasn't what was specified in the order. Roosevelt was not justified in making this decision because it led to splitting up families, arresting innocent people, and denying their rights.

     The Executive Order 9066 authorized the military to keep out “any or all persons from areas of the United States designated as military areas.” However, the order did not identify any particular group, but Roosevelt used it to remove and imprison Japanese and Japanese-American citizens. It ended up condemning almost 70% of imprisoned Japanese-American Citizens. Even if they were American but had some sort of Japanese descent, they would incarcerate them. All of this was okay because of the Executive Order 9066.

     Where did these innocent citizens go when they were removed and imprisoned? They were brought into wartime camps and were suspended of their rights under Fifth Amendment. The order Roosevelt passes, allowed the suspension and so, the Japanese Americans were denied their rights. The Fifth Amendment states that 'no person shall be deprived of life, liberty or property without due process.' This is a world-wide known right. Yet, Roosevelt just takes it away because he simply feels he needs to? That's scary knowing that the president could take everybody's rights away in a second if they wanted to. Not is it only scary, but it is not justified.  

     However, many people believe that Roosevelt was under good reasoning when passing the order. Some people will argue it helped public safety. People who are on that side of this argument tend to believe that he was also justified because of the hatred and fear against the Japanese Americans after the Japanese had attacked Pearl Harbor. This theory continued to expand, leading to a common belief that the Japanese-Americans had been of help to the Japanese in planning the attack.  

     Despite those beliefs, Roosevelt was impartially wrong in his ordering of Executive Order 9066. While it may have been true that many Americans were fearful of the Japanese, this is not a reason of why Roosevelt was justified. This is because they did not only intern Japanese and Japanese-Americans. They also interned thousands of others including Italian and German-Americans. So, even though people were supposedly scared of the Japanese, fear was obviously not the only reason they interned innocent American citizens.

     It's understandable how, on impulse, people can believe that Roosevelt was justified in interning millions of Americans. But, if you look deeper into it, that is clearly not the case. Executive Order 9066 was an inhumane and unjustified order that ruined many Americans lives and tore apart thousands of families. So, in conclusion, Roosevelt was not justified in issuing Executive Order 9066.

Explanation:

You might be interested in
What was NOT a result of what was NOT a result of
inna [77]

Answer:

I am not completely sure u would have to double check with someone else but I believe that the answer would be B (possibly c but I narrowed it down to those 2 the question was a bit confusing)

8 0
3 years ago
Fraction of states that must agree to change the constitution
abruzzese [7]

Answer:

three-fourths of the states must agree to change the constitution

6 0
3 years ago
what is an urban area that controls neighboring farmland that is not under the control of an empire or another government?
Paladinen [302]
An urban area that controls neighboring farmland but is not under the control of any empire or another government is called as the city-state. The city-state is like a small country that governs small city or cities and is not being managed by another government.
8 0
3 years ago
Romantic period composers
jarptica [38.1K]

Answer:

Im sure its A

Explanation:

5 0
2 years ago
How did the Russian Revolution of 1917 affect World War I?
miskamm [114]

Answer: the answer is D

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • Another word used to describe market economies
    12·1 answer
  • Bonus Question
    6·1 answer
  • What is the prison reform
    12·2 answers
  • What options did the U.S. have to counter the Soviet build-up of missiles in<br> Cuba?
    9·1 answer
  • The main goal of imperialism in Africa was
    10·2 answers
  • What was true about Timbuktu during Mansa Musa's rule? A. It was a center for Christian studies. B. It defeated the Moroccan arm
    8·1 answer
  • Was the treaty of Versailles fair?
    15·1 answer
  • Identify the states that developed in the Americas and explain how they changed over time.
    13·1 answer
  • Standing your ground is primarily about protecting an individual from criminal charges true or False
    13·1 answer
  • PLEASE HELP DUE TONIGHT: How are major news media organizations (specifically CNN, CBS, &amp; Fox) exaggerate (and even straight
    6·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!