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nirvana33 [79]
3 years ago
13

PS

Mathematics
1 answer:
GaryK [48]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

80×= 8×+16

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Together a boogie board, surfboard, and wetsuit cost $1,312. The surfboard cost six times the boogie board, and the wetsuit is $
marissa [1.9K]

Answer: See explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the cost of the boogie board be represented by x.

The surfboard cost six times the boogie board. Therefore, surfboard =6x

The wetsuit is $300 less than the surfboard. This means wetsuit = 6x - 300

Together a boogie board, surfboard, and wetsuit cost $1,312. Therefore,

x + 6x + 6x - 300 = 1312

13x = 1312 + 300

13x = 1612

x= 1612 / 13

x = 124

Boogie board cost $124

Surfboard = 6x

= 6 × $124

= $744

Wetsuit = 6x - 300

= $744 - $300

= $444

5 0
3 years ago
8. Solve 10+ 6(-9 - 4x) = 10(x - 12) + 8.<br> A. X=-18<br> O B. x = 17<br> O C.x= 2<br> O D. X = -6
RUDIKE [14]

Your answer should be C. X = 12

Steps to --> 10+ 6(-9 - 4x) = 10(x - 12) + 8

10 + 6 (-9 - 4x)

= 10 - 54 - 24x

= -24x - 44

10 (x - 12) + 8

= 10x - 120 + 8

= 10x - 112

-24x = 10x - 68

-24x - 10x = 10x - 68 - 10x

-34x = -68

-34x/-34 = -68/-34

x = 2

5 0
3 years ago
One day, a person went to a horse racing area. Instead of counting the number of humans an horses, he conuted 74 heads and 196 l
taurus [48]
X = the number of humans and y = the number of horses.

x+y=74
2x+4y=196

Because the number of humans and horses together is 74, and the total number of legs (2 per every human, x, and 4 per every horse, y) is 196.  Then, just use elimination to solve.



So, now that you have y, you can plug it into the first equation to find x:



So, x = 50 and y = 24, so there are 50 humans and 24 horses.
The correct answer is B.

4 0
3 years ago
Please answer asap will give brainiest
lubasha [3.4K]

Answer:

79% - almost 4 times out of 5.

The key to this is realizing that the number of games will not always be 5.

If A wins in a sweep - you have 2/3*(2/3)*2/3 percent chance of that happening - 8/27, or 29.63%

If A wins in 4, now we have 2/3*(2/3)*2/3*(1/3)*3 - the 1/3 is the chance that B wins a game. Note - there are only 3 ways B can win a game, not 4. B cannot win Game 4 because Game 4 would not be played in case of a sweep. That is why you cannot use a straight Pascal’s triangle to get your coefficients - the 1–4–6–4–1 is not possible if B cannot win Game 4. Anyway, the math is the same as the above, a 29.63% chance of A winning in 4.

For a 5 game set, A could lose 2 games in 6 possible ways (lose 1&2, 1&3, 1&4, 2&3, 2&4 or 3&4). Again, A cannot lose Game 5 - it would not be played once A wins 3 games. So the odds become 2/3*(2/3)*2/3*(1/3)*(1/3)*6, or 19.75%.

Add them up and you get 79.01%

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope it helps<3

6 0
3 years ago
A rectangular lot is 65 meters wide and 110 meters long.Give the length and width of another rectangular lot that has the same p
xxTIMURxx [149]

Answer:

maybe you have to add

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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