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Anettt [7]
2 years ago
7

A= (5/2) b= (-1/7) Work out 2a + b as a column vector.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Svet_ta [14]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

0.35714285714

You can search for any mathematical expression, using functions such as: sin, cos, sqrt, etc. You can find a complete list of functions here.

(

)

%

AC

7

8

9

÷

4

5

6

×

1

2

3

−

0

.

=

+

Rad

Deg

x!

Inv

sin

ln

π

cos

log

e

tan

√

Ans

EXP

xy

=

123

Fx

0.35714285714

You can search for any mathematical expression, using functions such as: sin, cos, sqrt, etc. You can find a complete list of functions here.

(

)

%

AC

7

8

9

÷

4

5

6

×

1

2

3

−

0

.

=

+

Rad

Deg

x!

Inv

sin

ln

π

cos

log

e

tan

√

Ans

EXP

xy

=

123

Fx

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Draw a tape diagram to represent the following<br> equation:<br> 3x + 15 = 90
Vikentia [17]

Answer:

25

Step-by-step explanation:

Subtract 15 from both sides then divide by 3.

3 0
2 years ago
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Write 1,270 in expanded form
Vikentia [17]

Answer:

1,000 + 200 + 70

Step-by-step explanation:

Expanded form is a way of writing numbers to see the math value of individual digits.

so for example:

5,000 + 300 + 20 + 3

is 5,323.

4 0
3 years ago
If two distinct lines intersect, which is NOT necessarily true?
Inessa05 [86]

The lines are perpendicular.

8 0
3 years ago
Solve for k.<br> 10<br> 1323<br> 3<br> 9<br> CAN U HELP PLEASE
Doss [256]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

k/9=10/3 multiply both sides by 9

k=90/3

k=30

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A research study uses 800 men under the age of 55. Suppose that 30% carry a marker on the male chromosome that indicates an incr
ss7ja [257]

Answer:

a) There is a 12.11% probability that exactly 1 man has the marker.

b) There is a 85.07% probability that more than 1 has the marker.

Step-by-step explanation:

There are only two possible outcomes: Either the men has the chromosome, or he hasn't. So we use the binomial probability distribution.

Binomial probability

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinatios of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And \pi is the probability of X happening.

In this problem, we have that:

30% carry a marker on the male chromosome that indicates an increased risk for high blood pressure, so \pi = 0.30

(a) If 10 men are selected randomly and tested for the marker, what is the probability that exactly 1 man has the marker?

10 men, so n = 10

We want to find P(X = 1). So:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}

P(X = 1) = C_{10,1}.(0.30)^{1}.(0.7)^{9} = 0.1211

There is a 12.11% probability that exactly 1 man has the marker.

(b) If 10 men are selected randomly and tested for the marker, what is the probability that more than 1 has the marker?

That is P(X > 1)

We have that:

P(X \leq 1) + P(X > 1) = 1

P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1)

We also have that:

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

P(X = 0) = C_{10,0}.(0.30)^{0}.(0.7)^{10} = 0.0282

So

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.0282 + 0.1211 = 0.1493

Finally

P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1) = 1 - 0.1493 = 0.8507

There is a 85.07% probability that more than 1 has the marker.

3 0
3 years ago
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