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NISA [10]
2 years ago
7

Private enterprise is run mainly to?

Business
1 answer:
saw5 [17]2 years ago
8 0
Most private enterprise mainly run to gain profit
You might be interested in
Consider the US market for chocolate, a market in which the government has imposed a price ceiling. Which of the following event
natita [175]

Answer:

D) South American cocoa bean producers refuse to ship to chocolate producers in the US.

Explanation:

A nonbinding rice ceiling means that the equilibrium price is below the price ceiling, so it will have no effect in real life. In order for the price ceiling to become binding and start to negatively affect the market, the equilibrium price must increase.  

The only option that would increase the equilibrium price is option D, since the shortage of a key input will probably result in an increase in the price of the key input. If the price of a key input increases, the cost of producing chocolate will increase, resulting in a leftward shift of the supply curve.

A leftward shift of the supply curve will decrease the total quantity supplied and it will increase the price of chocolate at every level of quantity demanded. This will result in an increase in the equilibrium price which might ultimately change the price ceiling from nonbinding to binding.

6 0
2 years ago
Markets are classified as either
Basile [38]
As either? did you finish it?
7 0
3 years ago
Below is the balance sheet for Glucose Control Company as of Dec. 31, 2015. The company reported an annual net income of $86,000
jekas [21]

Answer:

Glucose Control Company

a.  The value of total equity would be $58,000 on December 31, 2016.

b. The value of total equity would be $101,000 on December 31, 2016.

c. The value of total equity would be $144,000 on December 31, 2016.

d. The value of total equity would be $101,000 on December 31, 2016.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

GLUCOSE CONTROL COMPANY

Balance Sheet as of December 31, 2015:

Assets                                          Liabilities and Equity

Cash                              8,000     Accounts payable        16,000

Marketable securities  2,000     Notes payable               6,000

Accounts receivable    6,000     Current liabilities        22,000

Inventory                    45,000     Long term debt          95,000

Current assets           61,000     Total liabilities             117,000

Machines                   34,000     Paid in capital             20,000

Real estate              800,000     Retained earnings     38,000

Fixed assets              114,000     Equity                         58,000

Total assets              175,000    Total liab. & equity    175,000

Annual net income for 2016 = $86,000

Scenario A:

Total assets = 261,000 - 86,000 = 175,000

Total liabilities 117,000

Total equity =  144,000 - 86,000 = 58,000

Scenario B:

Total assets = 261,000 - 43,000 = 218,000

Total liabilities 117,000

Total equity =  144,000 - 43,000 = 101,000

Scenario C:

Total assets = 261,000 - 86,000 = 175,000

Total liabilities 117,000 - 86,000 = 31,000

Total equity =  144,000

Scenario D:

Total assets = 261,000 - 43,000 - 2,000 = 216,000

Total liabilities 117,000 - 2,000 = 115,000

Total equity =  144,000 - 43,000 = 101,000

b) The effect of dividend payment on equity is that cash dividends reduce the total equity just as cash is diminished.  But when it retains its net income without paying dividends, the total equity is increased just as its assets are bolstered.

5 0
3 years ago
Rossdale Co. stock currently sells for $72.87 per share and has a beta of 1.22. The market risk premium is 7.10 percent and the
Paul [167]

Answer:

Cost of Equity =11.56%

Explanation:

The cost of equity can be determined using any of the following methods:

  1. The Dividend Valuation Model(DVM)
  2. Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM)

The Dividend Valuation Model(DVM) is a technique used to value the worth of an asset.

According to this model, the value of an asset is the sum of the present values of the future cash flows would that arise from the asset discounted at the required rate of return.  

Price = D/Kp

D- Dividend payable

Kp- cost of preferred stock

The capital asset pricing model (CAPM): relates the price of a share to the market risk or systematic risk. The systematic risk is that which affects all the all the economic agents, e.g inflation, interest rate e.t.c  

This CAPM is considered superior to DVM because it incorporates risk. Hence, we will use the CAPM  

Using the CAPM , the expected return on a asset is given as follows:  

E(r)= Rf +β(Rm-Rf)  

E(r) =? , Rf- 2.90%, Rm-Rf- 7.10% β- 1.22

E(r) = 2.90% + 1.22×(7.10)% = 11.562  %

Cost of Equity =11.56%

7 0
2 years ago
"A Pre-Approach will occur twice in the selling cycle: once when you are doing the initial research to determine if this prospec
Likurg_2 [28]

Answer:

The correct answer is b. False

Explanation:

The selling cycle is a 7 steps approach:

  • prospecting,
  • pre-approach,
  • approach,
  • presentation,
  • meeting objections,
  • closing the sale,
  • and follow-up.

The pre-approach only occurs once in the cycle.

5 0
2 years ago
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