Depreciation is an accounting method for allocating the cost of a tangible or physical asset over its <u>usable life</u>. Depreciation is a term used to describe<u> how much</u> of an asset's worth has been used.
<h2>Given:</h2>
Initial value of the Car = 25,000
Depreciation of the Car= 15% per annum based on net book value
<h3>The computation:
</h3>
Note: t = Number of years
![\text{Net book value} = 25,000 (1 - 0.15)^t](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Ctext%7BNet%20book%20value%7D%20%3D%2025%2C000%20%281%20-%200.15%29%5Et)
![NBV = 25,000 (0.85)^5\\\ NBV = 25,000 (0.4437)\\\ NBV = 11,092.50 ](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=NBV%20%3D%2025%2C000%20%280.85%29%5E5%5C%5C%5C%0A%0ANBV%20%3D%2025%2C000%20%280.4437%29%5C%5C%5C%0A%0ANBV%20%3D%2011%2C092.50%0A%0A%0A)
As a result, the car's approximate value 5 years after purchase is 11,092.50.
For more information about computing sum, refer below:
brainly.com/question/1373966
Answer:
Be tailored to the specific needs of an individual decision maker.
Explanation:
A managerial account report is more likely to be tailored to the specific needs of an individual decision maker. This is usually In comparison with a financial statement prepared in conformity with generally accepted accounting principles,
The managerial account lays its focus on specific needs which the decision maker needs.
It doesn't do any of theses;
Focus upon the operating results of the most recently completed accounting period neither does it View the entire organization as the reporting entity.
Answer:
C. optimal capital labor ratio remains the same
Explanation:
One pilot for each plane implies A = B
Let cost be C
So, isocost line is xA + rB = C
So, xA + yA = C (as L = K)
So, (x+y)A = C
So, A = C/(x+y) =B
Optimal capital labor ratio = B/A = 1 as B =A
Now, wage rate increases to x'
So, isocost line is x'A + yB = C
So, x'A + yA = C (as A = B)
So, (x'+y)A = C
So, A = C/(x'+y) = B
New optimal capital labor ratio =B/A = 1 as B = A
Thus, optimal capital labor ratio remains same because capital (planes) and labor (pilots) are used in fixed proportion.
Thus the answer is
C. optimal capital labor ratio remains the same
Answer:
c. there is no requirement
Answer:
Accounts
Wages Expense
Wages Payable
$100,000
$100,000
Explanation:
As the expense is accrued but not paid at the end of 2013. The transaction requires an adjusting entry. This will charge a wages expense and create the wages payable liability. Ultimately on January 3 it will be paid. Wages for the two weeks are $100,000 and the 14 days has been passed for the pay period until year end of 2013.