Solving: (5)(3 - 1) + 4
Step One: Subtract 1 from 3 which is 2
<span><span>5<span>(<span>3 − 1</span>) </span></span>+ 4
Step Two, Multiply 5 by 2 which is 10</span><span>=<span><span><span>(5)</span><span>(2) </span></span>+ 4
Step Three, Add 4 to 10 which is 14</span></span><span>=<span>10+4
</span></span><span>=<span>14
Answer:
(A)14
Hope this helps!
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Answer:a) P(8 of the players numbers are drawn)=1.3×10^-8
b) P(7 of the players number are drrawn)=3.33×10^-c) P(at least 6 of the players number were drawn)=1.84×10^-4
Step-by-step explanation:
Players has 8 combinations of numbers from 1-40. The outcome S contains all the combinations of 8 out of 40
a) P(8 of the players numbers are drawn)= 1/40/8= 1.3×10^-8
There are one in hundred million chances that the draw numbers are precisely the chosen ones.
b) Number of ways of drawing 78 selected numbers from 1-40=8×(40-7)
8×32
P(7 of the players number are drawn)=8×32/40 =3.33×10^-6.
There are approximately 300,000 chances that 7 of the players numbers are chosen
c) P(at least 6 players numbers are drawn)= 32/2×(8/6) ways to draw.
P(at least 6 players numbers are drawn)=P(all 8 chosen are drawn)+P(7 players numbers drawn)+P(6 chosen are drawn) = 1+ 8 x32/40/8 +[8\6 ×32/2]
P(at least 6 players numbers are drawn) = 1.84×10^-4.
There are approximately 5400chances that at least6 of the numbers drawn are chosen by the player.
The y-intercept is 2 and the Slope is 2/4 but if you simplify that, it will be 1/2.
83 1/3 % = 5/6 so
20 = (5/6)x
x = (6/5)(20) = 24
The least Ben can sell is 37 manipulative to reach his goal.
