Answer:
√5.
Step-by-step explanation:
Tan A = 1/2 means that the right triangle containing angle A has legs of length 1 and 2 units. So the hypotenuse = √(1^2 + 2^2) = √5 (using the Pythagoras theorem). The side opposite to < A = 1 unit and the adjacent side = 2 (as tan = opposite / adjacent).
so cos A = adjacent / hypotenuse = 2/√5.
and sin A = opposite / hypotenuse = 1 / √5
cos A / sin A = 2/√5 / 1/ √5 = 2.
sin A / (1 + cos A) = 1/√5 (1 + 2/ √5)
= 1 / √5 ( (√5 + 2) /√5)
= 1 / (√5 + 2)
So the answer is:
2 + 1 /(√5 + 2).
We can simplify it further by multiplying top and bottom of the fraction by the complement of √5 + 2 which is √5 - 2.
2 + 1 / (√5 + 2)
= 2(√5 + 2) + 1 / (√5 + 2 )
= { 2(√5 + 2) + 1 } / (√5 + 2)
Multiplying this by √5 - 2 / √5 - 2 we get:
(2(5 - 4) + √5 - 2) / (5 -4)
= 2 + √5 - 2 / 1
= √5.
Answer:
9/20
Step-by-step explanation:
$848-d is the answer.
Since there is not set amount for the expenses, the only answer I can give is this equation.
Answer:
3
2
4
1
Step-by-step explanation:
mark as brain list plz and like
Answer: the first one is 3y
Step-by-step explanation:
Go to the website mathpapa , type in the problem and it gives you the answer with steps
