Answer:
19.2
Step-by-step explanation:
i believe it should be that 99% sure
Answer:
1.07m
Step-by-step explanation:
the first step is to convert inches to cm
1in =2.54cm
(42.4in/1in x2.54cm)
42.4in = 107.69cm
then convert cm to m
1cm =0.01m
(107.69cm/1cm x 0.01m)
107.69cm =1.0769m
~1.07m
Answer:
the answer is c
Step-by-step explanation:
because a statistical question is that some thing that you know you the answer and so that was my answer
HOPE THAT HELPED YOU :00000000
Answer: (A)
Explanation: For there to be a solution at any one point, both inequalities must share a common point. This point will then satisfy both inequations, becoming a solution to both inequality.
Let's pick (A).
For there to be at least one solution, the first inequality must have a solution of

. Since the left side has clearly no points common to both graphs. Hence, no solution can exist that will satisfy both.
All of the other graphs have at least one point in common.
(B) has

(C) has

(D) has