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yaroslaw [1]
3 years ago
12

Do the methods below use Cash Flows or Operating Income

Business
1 answer:
KatRina [158]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: c

Explanation:

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A manufacturer has an estimated practical capacity of 90,000 machine hours, and each unit requires two machine hours. The follow
nata0808 [166]

Answer:

Of the following factors, the manufacturer's production volume variance is most likely to have been caused by:

D. Temporary employment of workers with lower skill levels than originally anticipated.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Estimated practical capacity = 90,000 machine hours

Machine hours per unit = 2

Estimated production units based on capacity = 45,000 (90,000/2)

                                                   Budgeted          Actual

Variable overhead =                 $200,000      $240,000

Actual fixed overhead =           $450,000      $442,000

Machine hours                             90,000           88,000

Units produced                            45,000           42,000

Estimated units to be produced based on standard machine hour

= 44,000 units (88,000/2)

Variance between standard units to be produced and actual = 2,000 (44,000 - 42,000) Unfavorable

5 0
3 years ago
Zitrik Corporation manufactured 90,000 buckets during February. The variable overhead cost-allocation base is $5.05 per machine-
Yanka [14]
1. What is the variable overhead spending variance? (HINT: The answer $980 unfavorable, but I need work to support this)
2. What is the variable overhead efficiency variance? (HINT: The answer is $4,040 unfavorable, but I need work to support this)
3 0
3 years ago
Should i study buisness like is it hard
Len [333]

Answer:

idk, just go for it if its wut u want

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
On January 1, 2014, Borstad Company purchased equipment for $1,180,000. It is depreciating the equipment over 25 years using the
bezimeni [28]

Answer:

Explanation:

a)Purchase cost - 1,180,000

Useful life - 25

Annual depreciation = 47,200

Timeline - Jan 1 , 2014 - 2019 = 6 years

Accumulated depreciation = 47200*6=283,200

Carrying value at 2019 = (1,180,000 - 283,200)= 896,800

B) Annual cash flow - 400,000

Annual cash outflow - (295,000)

Net cash inflow= 105,000

Net cash flow for 8 years = 105000*8 = 840000

Since the net cash inflow is less than the carrying value , there is an impairment.

PV value of the net cash inflow at 12% discount for 8 years = 521,602

Impairment loss = $375,198    

At December 21.2019

2.) Debit impairment loss - $375,198

Credit equipment - $375,198        

               

4 0
3 years ago
During your meeting with your client, Hayden Doyle, you recommended he purchase a personal liability umbrella policy (PLUP). Whi
nataly862011 [7]

Answer:

b. Develop and present financial planning recommendations.

Explanation:

Since in the question it is mentioned that there is a recommendation for buying a personal liability with respect to the umbrella policy so in the steps of the financial planning process, the step that should be considered is to develop & present the recommendation with regard to the financial planning as the financial planning is important than can save your future

hence, the correct option is B.

6 0
3 years ago
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