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fenix001 [56]
3 years ago
5

Shawntell is training for a relay race. She ran 2000 feet every day for 6 days.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Elena-2011 [213]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

12,000

Step-by-step explanation:

2000*6 is 12000

Hope this helps plz hit the crown :D

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Let X be the number of material anomalies occurring in a particular region of an aircraft gas-turbine disk. The article "Methodo
Shkiper50 [21]

Answer:

a) P(X\leq 4)=0.0183+0.0733+ 0.1465+0.1954+0.1954=0.6288

P(X< 4)=P(X\leq 3)=0.0183+0.0733+ 0.1465+0.1954=0.4335

b) P(4\leq X\leq 8)=0.1954+0.1563+0.1042+0.0595+0.0298=0.5452

c) P(X \geq 8) = 1-P(X

d) P(4\leq X \leq 6)=0.1954+0.1563+0.1042=0.4559

Step-by-step explanation:

Let X the random variable that represent the number of material anomalies occurring in a particular region of an aircraft gas-turbine disk. We know that X \sim Poisson(\lambda=4)

The probability mass function for the random variable is given by:

f(x)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^x}{x!} , x=0,1,2,3,4,...

And f(x)=0 for other case.

For this distribution the expected value is the same parameter \lambda

E(X)=\mu =\lambda=4  , Var(X)=\lambda=2, Sd(X)=2

a. Compute both P(X≤4) and P(X<4).

P(X\leq 4)=P(X=0)+P(X=1)+ P(X=2)+P(X=3)+P(X=4)

Using the pmf we can find the individual probabilities like this:

P(X=0)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^0}{0!}=e^{-4}=0.0183

P(X=1)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^1}{1!}=0.0733

P(X=2)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^2}{2!}=0.1465

P(X=3)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^3}{3!}=0.1954

P(X=4)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^4}{4!}=0.1954

P(X\leq 4)=0.0183+0.0733+ 0.1465+0.1954+0.1954=0.9646

P(X< 4)=P(X\leq 3)=P(X=0)+P(X=1)+ P(X=2)+P(X=3)

P(X< 4)=P(X\leq 3)=0.0183+0.0733+ 0.1465+0.5311=0.7692

b. Compute P(4≤X≤ 8).

P(4\leq X\leq 8)=P(X=4)+P(X=5)+ P(X=6)+P(X=7)+P(X=8)

P(X=4)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^4}{4!}=0.1954

P(X=5)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^5}{5!}=0.1563

P(X=6)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^6}{6!}=0.1042

P(X=7)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^7}{7!}=0.0595

P(X=8)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^8}{8!}=0.0298

P(4\leq X\leq 8)=0.1954+0.1563+ 0.1042+0.0595+0.0298=0.5452

c. Compute P(8≤ X).

P(X \geq 8) = 1-P(X

P(X \geq 8) = 1-P(X

d. What is the probability that the number of anomalies exceeds its mean value by no more than one standard deviation?

The mean is 4 and the deviation is 2, so we want this probability

P(4\leq X \leq 6)=P(X=4)+P(X=5)+P(X=6)

P(X=4)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^4}{4!}=0.1954

P(X=5)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^5}{5!}=0.1563

P(X=6)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^6}{6!}=0.1042

P(4\leq X \leq 6)=0.1954+0.1563+0.1042=0.4559

4 0
4 years ago
3(y + 10) using the distributive property
Solnce55 [7]

Answer:

3y+30

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which system of equations can be graphed to find the solution(s) to...
Jobisdone [24]

Answer:

67

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Please help!
kotegsom [21]

Answer:

7

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x) means y, it is equal to the value of y, so f(x) = y

so, f(1) means to find the value of y when the value of x is 1, and that is 7, since 7 is the value of y indicated when the value of x is 1.

I hope this is helpful.

4 0
3 years ago
Part A: Solve –mk – 90 &gt; 85 for m. Show your work.
erma4kov [3.2K]

Answer:

A) m < -175/k and B) 3c/5 - 11

Step-by-step explanation:

A) Add 90 to both sides. -mk > 175.

Next, divide both sides by -k. Because you divide by a negative, don't forget to reverse the sign!

m < -175/k.

B) Subtract 3c from both sides.

-5f = 55 - 3c.

Now multiply both sides by -1/5.

f = 3c/5 - 11

7 0
3 years ago
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