Answer:
6.67 years
Explanation:
The number of years for the firm to reach the desired value of $1.2 million can determined using the nper formula in excel as below:
=nper(rate,pmt,pv,-fv)
rate is the interest rate earns by the fund at 10% per year
pmt is the addition to the fund in each year which is $50,000
pv is the current amount in the fund which is $400,000
fv is the desired value of $1.2 million
=nper(10%,50000,400000,-1200000)= 6.67 years
It would take 6.67 years for the sinking fund to reach the desired value of $1,200,000
Answer:
Career portfolio I think
Explanation:
Tell me if I am wrong please.
Original price: 24 times 300 = 7200
Making money: 0.25*(2/3)24*300 = 1200
Loss: 0.3*(1/3)24*300 = 720
Profit overall = 120–720 = $480
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Combination of forecasting models is likely to lead to the lowest rmse of the combined forecast is AR and MA models.
Combining forecasts, from time to time called composite forecasts, refers back to the averaging of unbiased forecasts. These forecasts may be primarily based totally on special statistics or special techniques or both. The averaging is performed the usage of a rule that may be replicated, together with to take a easy common of the forecasts.
The AR element includes regressing the variable on its very own lagged (i.e., past) values. The MA element includes modeling the mistake time period as a linear mixture of mistakess phrases going on contemporaneously and at diverse instances withinside the past.
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Answer:
Investment Opportunity 1 has a few risks.Though it invests in stocks, it makes consistent profits. It lacks volatility because managers carefully select stocks with long-term earning potential. Investment Opportunity 2 risks are related to changing interest rates, which can cause bonds to make less money for bondholders. Also, it may be affected by inflation, and it carries the risk of default: if a city or county government fails to make its bond payments, then the bondholder loses money. Both companies tell you the risks, and they have the same level of it. Investment Opportunity 1 has three documents to illustrate the fund’s risks and returns over the past five years.The first graph lists how a hypothetical investment of $10,000 fared over those five years. The second graph lists an overall earnings percentage for four different earnings periods. The final graphic shows how the company rates the level of risk. Investment Opportunity 2 also provided three documents to illustrate the fund’s risks and returns over the past five years. The first graph lists how a hypothetical investment of $10,000 fared over those five years. The second graph lists an overall earnings percentage for four different earnings periods. The final graphic shows how the company rates the level of risk. Both say the potential returns of each investment, but investment opportunity 1 hypothetical investment of $10,000 fared over those five years is not as steady as investment opportunity 2. Investment Opportunity 2 is the fraudulent one because its percentage of return is better than investment opportunity 1. Both are with large companies that are almost just alike but investment opportunity 2 has a better rates of return. The first one serves thousands of customers and specializes in managing stocks and mutual funds. The second firm serves thousands of customers, and it specializes in managing mutual funds that invest in bonds.
Explanation: Hope this helps this is what I used for <u>Edge 2020</u> ^-^. Also I do not take credit for this answer, but I feel like this is a very well and detailed answer.