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kow [346]
3 years ago
15

Tata Motors is an Indian multinational automotive company headquartered in Mumbai and a core member of the very successful Tata

Group. India is a potentially enormous market, and Tata Motors is doing well in that market. How can Tata Motors use their core competencies in doing well in India as a way to also do well in exporting
Business
1 answer:
Svetlanka [38]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: Focused and intensive competency

Explanation:

TATA has made a name in India for being one of their largest automobile used there. To maintain and increase their market globally they have to be consistent with their competency in their product. Competency is what would make them gain more global market because they are already in some countries but how durable, efficient their vehicle's are is what would make it be referred by those using it. There other products in the market but competency would be the stand-out, making them exceptional.

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A 10-year annuity pays $1,700 per month, and payments are made at the end of each month. If the interest rate is 12 percent comp
Dahasolnce [82]

Answer:

Present value (PV) of the annuity = $156,988.13

Explanation:

Since the payments are made at the end of each month, the formula for calculating the present value  of an ordinary annuity is the relevant to use as follows:

PV = P × [{1 - [1 ÷ (1+r)]^n} ÷ r] …………………………………. (1)

Where for the first 5 years;

PV = Present value of the payments today =?

P = monthly payment = $1,700

r = monthly interest rate = 12%/12 = 1%, or 0.01

n = number of months = 5* 12 = 60

Substitute the values into equation (1) to have:

PV = 1,700 × [{1 - [1 ÷ (1+0.01)]^60} ÷ 0.01] = $76,423.57  

Where for the last 5 years;

PV = Present value of the payments today =?

P = monthly payment = $1,700

r = monthly interest rate = 8%/12 = 0.67% , or 0.0067

n = number of months = 5* 12 = 60

Substitute the values into equation (1) to have:

PV_5 = 1,700 × [{1 - [1 ÷ (1+0.0067)]^60} ÷ 0.0067] = $83,841.34  

PV after five years is:

PV = $83,841.34 ÷ (1 + 0.0067)^6 = $80,564.57  

PV of the annuity = $76,423.57 + $80,564.57 = $156,988.13

7 0
3 years ago
Housing Starts<br> What does it mean for this indicator to be cyclical?
adelina 88 [10]

Answer:

The cyclical indicator is extensively used as a business cycle analysis tool, employs a series of variables which tend to anticipate, coincide with or lag behind the movements of economic activity to indicate the phases of the business cycle.

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Your best friend wants to borrow $2000 from you today for an emergency purchase they need to make that requires a cash payment.
kvasek [131]

Answer:

a. It is not a fair deal for me.

The question is how much is $1,000 today when received in 12 months' time from now.  The present value of $1,000 at 5% effective interest rate is $952 ($1,000 * 0.952).  The other repayment of $1,100 in 2 years' time from now is worth $997.70 today at the 5% effective interest rate.  This implies that my friend is repaying me $1,949.70 in present value terms.

For friendship sake, I may lend her the money, but in economic analysis terms, the NPV value will yield a negative value of $50.30 ($2,000 - $1,949.70).  My friend is not actually paying me back the amount I would lend to her.  She is paying me less than I actually would lend to her.

b. Cash Flow Diagram:

                 Year 1             Year 2

                    F1                F2

                 $1,000          $1,100     (Inflows)

Fo⇵.................⇵.......................⇵...........................⇵n period

Year 0

$2,000   (outflows)

Explanation:

The cash flow diagram for this loan is the graphical representation of the timing of the cash flows with a clear marking of the repayments made by my best friend in two instalments and the $2,000 that I lent to her.  This cash flow diagram presents the flow of cash as arrows on a timeline scaled to the magnitude of the cash flow, where outflows are down arrows and inflows are up arrows.

The Net present value (NPV) of this loan shows the difference between the present value of repayments by my best friend and the present value of $2,000 that I lent to her over a period of 2 years. To obtain this difference, the present values of cash inflows  of $1,000 in a year's time and $1,100 in two years' time are determined using the discount factor table based on the given interest rate of 5%.

6 0
4 years ago
Following is information about consulting jobs for a company that is increasing in sales, but has not yet become profitable. The
polet [3.4K]

Answer:

Part 1

$82 per professional labor hour

Part 2

Job 141 = $16,383  ,Job 142 = $32,766 , and Job 143 = $17,399

Part 3

Cost of Goods Sold = $49,149

Ending Work In Process Inventory = $17,399

Part 4

Overheads Under- applied = $10,480

Part 5

$102.00 per professional labor hour

Explanation:

Labor Cost per hour = Total Cost ÷ Total hours

                                  = $23,580 ÷ ( 129 + 258 + 137)

                                  = $45.00 per hour

<em>We know that,</em>

Overhead allocation rate = Estimated Overhead Costs ÷ Estimated Professional labor hours

<em>But using Job 141 we can solve as,</em>

Total for Job  141                                         = $32,766

<em>Less </em>Labor Cost (258 hours × $45.00)       =  $11,610

Overheads allocated to Job 141                 = $21,156

<em>Then,</em>

Overhead allocation rate =  $21,156 ÷ 258

                                          = $82 per professional labor hour

<u>Total Costs</u>

                                          Job 140         Job 141            Job 142

Direct Labor                        $5,805         $11,610              $6,165

Overheads                         $10,578         $21,156            $11,234

Total Cost                           $16,383       $32,766           $17,399

<u>Cost of Goods Sold</u>

Note : Only Finished Jobs are accounted in this figure

Total Cost of Job 140      $16,383

Total Cost of Job 141       $32,766

Cost of Goods Sold         $49,149

<u>Work In Process Inventory</u>

Note : Only Incomplete Jobs are accounted in this figure

Total Cost of Job 142       $17,399

<u>Application of Overheads</u>

Actual Overheads (given)                                  = $53,448

Applied Overheads ($82 ×  ( 129 + 258 + 137)) = $42,968

Actual Overheads > Applied Overheads therefore we have an Under-applied situation.

Overheads Under- applied = $10,480 ($53,448 - $42,968)

<u>Reasonable Overhead Rate.</u>

Rate that does not produce variances is reasonable !

Reasonable Overhead Rate. = Actual Overheads ÷ Total Professional Hours

                                                = $53,448 ÷ 524 hours

                                                = $102.00 per professional labor hour

3 0
3 years ago
Fast Auto Service provides a lubrication service for cars. It is known that the mean time taken for this
strojnjashka [21]

Answer:

The answer is below

Explanation:

The z core is used to determine by how many standard deviations the raw score is above or below the mean. The z score is given by:

z=\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma}\\\\where\ \mu=mean,\sigma=standard\ deviation, x = raw score

Given that mean (μ) = 15 minutes per car, standard deviation (σ) = 2.4 minutes.

1) For x > 18:

z=\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma} =\frac{18-15}{2.4} =1.25

From normal distribution table, P(x > 18) = P(z > 1.25) = 1 - P(z < 1.25) = 1 - 0.8944 = 0.1056

2) For x < 10:

z=\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma} =\frac{10-15}{2.4} =-2.08

From normal distribution table, P(x < 10) = P(z < -2.08) = 0.0188

3) For x > 12:

z=\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma} =\frac{12-15}{2.4} =-1.25

For x < 16:

z=\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma} =\frac{16-15}{2.4} =0.42

From normal distribution table, P(12 < x < 16) = P(z < 0.42) - P(z < -1.25) = 0.6628 - 0.1056 = 0.5572

6 0
3 years ago
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