Let's start with simplifying this equation. Typically we have y = something, so let's rewrite it in this form.
3xy = -3
y = -3/3x
y = -1/x
Alright! Now, let's go ahead and solve for the y-intercept. Those only occur when x=0, so let's plug in 0 for x.
y = -1/0
Slight problem. Dividing by a 0 results in an imaginary number, or "undefined". In this case, there is no y-intercept.
Now we can solve for an x-intercept. These only occur when y=0, so let's set y to 0!
0 = -1/x
Well shoot! We have another problem. No regular number of x will give us a y=0. However, this problem isn't the same as our undefined one from before. Here, as x value approach infinity, we get closer and closer to 0. We can never actually hit 0, but we do approach it. I'm not sure how your teacher wants it answered, but strictly, there is no x-intercept. However, we can actually attempt to explain what is going on, which is that as x go to infinity, we APPROACH y=0.
Hope that helps, and please let me know if you need clarification on anything!
Answer:
C) 0.179
Step-by-step explanation:
Since the trials are independent, this is a binomial distribution:
<u>Recall:</u>
- Binomial Distribution -->
denotes the probability of 
successes in 
independent trials
denotes the probability of success on each of trials
denotes the probability of failure on the remaining 
trials
denotes all possible ways to choose things out of things
<u>Given:</u>
<u>Calculate:</u>
Therefore, the probability that the archer will get exactly 4 bull's-eyes with 10 arrows in any order is 0.179
Answer:
k = - 2
Step-by-step explanation:
( 2x - y )²
Formula : -
( a - b )² = a² + b² - 2ab
Here,
a = 2x
b = y
( 2x - y )²
= ( 2x )² + y² - 2 ( 2x ) ( y )
= 4x² + y² - 4xy
So,
( 2x - y )² = 4x² + y² - 4xy
( 2x + y )²
Formula : -
( a + b )² = a² + b² + 2ab
Here,
a = 2x
b = y
( 2x + y )²
= ( 2x )² + y² + 2 ( 2x ) ( y )
= 4x² + y² + 4xy
So,
( 2x + y )² = 4x² + y² + 4xy
( 2x - y )² - ( 2x + y )²
= 4x² + y² - 4xy - ( 4x² + y² + 4xy )
= 4x² + y² - 4xy - 4x² - y² - 4xy
= 4x² - 4x² + y² - y² - 4xy - 4xy
= 0 + 0 - 8xy
= - 8xy
( 2x - y )² - ( 2x + y )² = 4xyk
- 8xy = 4xyk
Divide 4xy on both sides,
- 8xy / 4xy = 4xyk / 4xy
- 2 = k
k = - 2
Therefore, the value of k is - 2.
The 5-day SMA for the 10 consecutive-day closing prices are:
- Day 2-6=$284.384
- Day 2-6=$284.384
- Day 3-7=$288.792
- Day 4-8=$291.362
- Day 5-9=$291.256
- Day 6-10=$291.618
<h3> 5-day SMA for the 10 consecutive-day </h3>
Day 1-5:
Day 1-5 =$242.50+$273.98+$278.16 +$293.94+ $285.04÷5
Day 1-5=$1,373.62÷5
Day 1-5=$274.724
Day 2-6:
Day 2-6=$273.98+ $278.16 +$293.94 +$285.04+$290.80÷5
Day 2-6=$1,421.92÷5
Day 2-6=$284.384
Day 3-7:
Day 3-7=$278.16 +$293.94+ $285.04+$290.80 +S296.02÷5
Day 3-7=$1,443.96÷5
Day 3-7=$288.792
Day 4-8:
Day 4-8= $293.94 +$285.04+$290.80+$296.02+ $291.01÷5
Day 4-8=$1,456.81÷5
Day 4-8=$291.362
Day 5-9:
Day 5-9=$285.04+$290.80+$296.02 +$291.01 +$293.41÷5
Day 5-9=$1,456.28÷5
Day 5-9=$291.256
Day 6-10:
Day 6-10=$290.80+$296.02+ $291.01 +$293.41+ $286.85÷5
Day 6-10=$1,458.09÷5
Day 6-10=$291.618
Therefore the 5-day SMA for the 10 consecutive-day closing prices are:
$284.384; $284.384; $288.792; $291.362; $291.256; $291.618.
Learn more about 5-day SMA for the 10 consecutive-day here: brainly.com/question/5549040
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