Answer:
Growth rate 2.4%
Explanation:
MV=D1/(Ke-g)
Where MV=share market value=$15
D1=Dividend at year end=$.72
Ke=stock's expected rate of return=7.2%
By putting above values in formula, we get;
MV=D1/(Ke-g)
15=.72/(7.2%-g)
15*7.2%-15g=.72
1.08-15g=.72
.72-1.08=-15g
g= -.36/-15
g=2.4%
 
        
                    
             
        
        
        
Answer:
The answer is: Obligation that has a distant due date exceeding company's operating cycle.  
Explanation:
A current liability is a financial obligation due within one year (or one normal operation cycle).
So a financial obligation that has a due date that exceeds a company´s operating cycle should have been directly classified as a long term liability (or a non current liability) in the first place. It simply is not a current liability that is changed into a long term liability, it always was a long term liability.
The other options represent the steps necessary for turning a current liability into a long term liability. 
- Intend to refinance the obligation on a long-term basis.
- Demonstrate the ability to complete the refinancing.
- Subsequently refinance the obligation on a long-term basis.
 
 
        
             
        
        
        
The answer would be A, command economy
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
The correct answer is A
Explanation:
Economic growth is defined as the rise in the capacity of the economy for producing or manufacturing the goods and services as compared from one year to another.
And the economic growth is determined in terms of GNP (Gross National Product) or in terms of GDP (Gross Domestic Product).
So, if the nation want to accomplish the higher level of economic growth, then the nation should devote more amount of resources in R & D (research and development).
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
1. Cash payments for merchandise is $446,030
2.Cash payment for operating expense is $77,870
Explanation:
1. In order to calculate the Cash payments for Merchandise we would have to use the following formula:
    
Cash payments for Merchandise= cost of goods sold +decrease in accounts payable-decrease in inventory
Cash payments for Merchandise=$448,500+$4,290-$6,760  
Cash payment for Merchandise=$446,030
2. In order to calculate the Cash payments for operating expenses we would have to use the following formula:
Cash payment for operating expense=operating expense - decrease in prepaid expense +decrease in Accured
Cash payment for operating expense=$78,000	-$650+$520  
Cash payment for operating expense=$77,870