Answer:
The answer is
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Step-by-step explanation:
<h3>
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To solve the expression we use the rules of indices
Since the bases are the same and are dividing we subtract the exponents
That's
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So we have
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We have the final answer as
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Hope this helps you
Answer:
a. 1/13
b. 1/52
c. 2/13
d. 1/2
e. 15/26
f. 17/52
g. 1/2
Step-by-step explanation:
a. In a deck of cards, there are 4 suits and each of them has a 7. Therefore, the probability of drawing a 7 is:
P(7) = 4/52 = 1/13
b. There is only one 6 of clubs, therefore, the probability of drawing a 6 of clubs is:
P(6 of clubs) = 1/52
c. There 4 fives (one for each suit) and 4 queens in a deck of cards. Therefore, the probability of drawing a five or a queen is:
P(5 or Q) = P(5) + P(Q)
= 4/52 + 4/52
= 1/13 + 1/13
P(5 or Q) = 2/13
d. There are 2 suits that are black. Each suit has 13 cards. Therefore, there are 26 black cards. The probability of drawing a black card is:
P(B) = 26/52 = 1/2
e. There are 2 suits that are red. Each suit has 13 cards. Therefore, there are 26 red cards. There are 4 jacks. Therefore:
P(R or J) = P(R) + P(J)
= 26/52 + 4/52
= 30/52
P(R or J) = 15/26
f. There are 13 cards in clubs suit and there are 4 aces, therefore:
P(C or A) = P(C) + P(A)
= 13/52 + 4/52
P(C or A) = 17/52
g. There are 13 cards in the diamonds suit and there are 13 in the spades suit, therefore:
P(D or S) = P(D) + P(S)
= 13/52 + 13/52
= 26/52
P(D or S) = 1/2
IDK really, but you can ask the question on brainly.
Answer:
2⁹
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Can not prove that
Step-by-step explanation:
In case of p=1 and v=0, or p=0 => two equation alway true.
