Answer:
2.1
Step-by-step explanation:
Given :
Radios(X):_0 ___ 1 ___2 ___ 3 ___4 ___5
P(X=x) : 0.03 0.20 0.50 0.20 0.05 0.02
The expected weekly radio sales :
Σ(X) * p(x) : (0*0.03) + (1*0.20) + (2*0.50) + (3*0.20) + (4*0.05) + (5* 0.02) = 2.1
Hence, expected weekly radio sale = 2.1
There are a total of 5+6+4+3+2=20 M&Ms in the bag. Since there are 6 yellow M&Ms in the bag, there's a 6/20 probability that the first M&M will be yellow. Then, there are 5 more yellow M&Ms and 19 more total M&Ms in the bag, so there is a 5/19 chance the next M&M will be yellow. Finally, there are 4 more yellow M&Ms in the bag and 18 total M&Ms, so there is a 4/18 chance the last M&M will be yellow.
Multiplying these together, we have:
(6*5*4)/(20*19*18)
This simplifies to:
1/57
Therefore, there is a 1/57 probability that all M&Ms will be yellow.
Answer:
1/6
Step-by-step explanation:
The probability of an event happening k times in n trials if the probability of the event is called p is the binomial distribution probability:
P(k times in n trials) = (Ckn)pk(1-p)n-k where the 1st term is the combination of n things k at a time or
n!/(k!(n-k)!)
In this case n is 100, k is 25 and P = 1/6
Hope that helps.
Since there is an infinite amount of numbers, there is not really a definite answer to this question.
