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amid [387]
3 years ago
9

A body having uniform velocity has zero acceleration? give reason​

Physics
2 answers:
Gala2k [10]3 years ago
8 0

Explanation:

A body having uniform velocity has zero acceleration because its initial and final velocity are same

i.e,v=u

by the formula of acceleration,we have

v-u/t

=v-v/t

=0/t

=0

Sonja [21]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

A body having uniform velocity has zero acceleration because

there is not change in velocity.

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Tim and Rick both can run at speed Vr and walk at speed Vw, with Vr > Vw.
miss Akunina [59]

Answer:

Δt =  \frac{2D}{Vw+Vr} - \frac{D}{2Vr} - \frac{D}{2Vw}

Explanation:

Hi there!

Using the equation of speed for the whole trip, we can obtain the time each one needed to cover the distance D.

The speed (v) is calculated by dividing the traveled distance (d) over the time needed to cover that distance (t):

v = d/t

Rick traveled half of the distance at Vr and the other half at Vw. Then, when v = Vr, the distance traveled was D/2 and the time is unknown, Δt1:

Vr = D/ (2 · Δt1)

For the other half of the trip the expression of velocity will be:

Vw = D/(2 · Δt2)

The total time traveled is the sum of both Δt:

Δt(total) = Δt1 + Δt2

Then, solving the first equation for Δt1:

Vr = D/ (2 · Δt1)

Δt1 = D/(2 · Vr)

In the same way for the second equation:

Δt2 = D/(2 · Vw)

Δt + Δt2 = D/(2 · Vr) + D/(2 · Vw)

Δt(total) = D/2 · (1/Vr + 1/Vw)

The time needed by Rick to complete the trip was:

Δt(total) = D/2 · (1/Vr + 1/Vw)

Now let´s calculate the time it took Tim to do the trip:

Tim walks half of the time, then his speed could be expressed as follows:

Vw = 2d1/Δt  Where d1 is the traveled distance.

Solving for d1:

Vw · Δt/2 = d1

He then ran half of the time:

Vr = 2d2/Δt

Solving for d2:

Vr · Δt/2 = d2

Since d1 + d2 = D, then:

Vw · Δt/2 +  Vr · Δt/2 = D

Solving for Δt:

Δt (Vw/2 + Vr/2) = D

Δt = D / (Vw/2 + Vr/2)

Δt = D/ ((Vw + Vr)/2)

Δt = 2D / (Vw + Vr)

The time needed by Tim to complete the trip was:

Δt = 2D / (Vw + Vr)

Let´s find the diference between the time done by Tim and the one done by Rick:

Δt(tim) - Δt(rick)

2D / (Vw + Vr) - (D/2 · (1/Vr + 1/Vw))

\frac{2D}{Vw+Vr} - \frac{D}{2Vr} - \frac{D}{2Vw} = Δt

Let´s check the result. If Vr = Vw:

Δt = 2D/2Vr - D/2Vr - D/2Vr

Δt = D/Vr - D/Vr = 0

This makes sense because if both move with the same velocity all the time both will do the trip in the same time.

8 0
3 years ago
What happens to an iron bar when it is placed within the coils of a solenoid
Rina8888 [55]
When the iron bar is placed within the coils of a solenoid it then becomes a magnet.  
6 0
3 years ago
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Why are the temperatures on each of the other terrestrial planets more extreme than earth?
netineya [11]
Other terrestrial planets have more extreme temperatures mainly because of their atmospheres
Explanation:
for example the atmosphere of Venus is composed mainly of carbon dioxide, this carbon dioxide traps the heat or energy from the sun and makes the planet have higher temperatures. where on mars the atmosphere is very thin so it takes in lots of heat and doesn't keep it in very well so it gets very hot and very cold
7 0
3 years ago
In a classroom demonstration, the pressure inside a soft drink can is suddenly reduced to essentially zero. Assuming the can to
umka2103 [35]

Answer:

3141N or 3.1 ×10³N to 2 significant figures. The can experiences this inward force on its outer surface.

Explanation:

The atmospheric pressure acts on the outer surface of the can. In order to calculate this inward force we need to know the total surface area of the can available to the air outside the can. Since the can is a cylinder with a total surface area given by 2πrh + 2πr² =

A = 2πr(r + h)

Where h = height of the can = 12cm

r = radius of the can = 6.5cm/2 = 3.25cm

r = diameter /2

A = 2π×3.25 ×(3.25 + 12) = 311.4cm² = 311.4 ×10-⁴ = 0.031m²

Atmospheric pressure, P = 101325Pa = 101325 N/m²

F = P × A

F = 101325 ×0.031.

F = 3141N. Or 3.1 ×10³ N.

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3 years ago
How many atoms of sodium do you have if you have one mole of sodium?
Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

multiply the number of moles of Na by the conversion factor 6.02214179×1023 atoms Na/ 1 mol Na, with 6.02214179×1023 atoms being the number of atoms in one mole of Na (Avogadro's constant), which then allows the cancelation of moles, leaving the number of atoms of Na.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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