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Ivenika [448]
3 years ago
6

Write the rule for the translation shown below.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Pepsi [2]3 years ago
5 0
That is a reflection
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Find the ULE in the triangle below
aivan3 [116]

Where is the triangle?

7 0
3 years ago
What are the values of c makes x^2 + 6x + c a perfect square trinomial? <br> 3<br> 6<br> 9<br> 12
alex41 [277]

Answer:

<h2>c = 9</h2>

Step-by-step explanation:

(a+b)^2=a^2+2ab+b^2\\\\\text{We have}\ x^2+6x+c=x^2+2(x)(3)+c\\\\\text{Therefore}\ c=3^2=9\\\\x^2+2(x)(3)+3^2=(x+3)^2

6 0
3 years ago
Make a list of 5 numbers with a mean of 12 and a mode of 15. <br><br> Explain if you can
mart [117]

The mean is the average value of the numbers given in the series

The mode is the number that is appears more than any other number given in the series

Step-by-step explanation:

Given challenge is make a list of 5 numbers

The list of 5 number is = 8,10,12,15,15

Mean value = (8+10+12+15+15)/5 =60/5 = 12

so required mean is 12 has been computed

Mode = 15 ( the number 12 is appeared in two times 8,10,12,15,15)

Final answer

The required numbers are = 8,10,12,15,15

6 0
3 years ago
Does 23^-1 (mod 1000) exist? If yes solve it.
sweet [91]

Yes, 23 has an inverse mod 1000 because gcd(23, 1000) = 1 (i.e. they are coprime).

Let <em>x</em> be the inverse. Then <em>x</em> is such that

23<em>x</em> ≡ 1 (mod 1000)

Use the Euclidean algorithm to solve for <em>x</em> :

1000 = 43×23 + 11

23 = 2×11 + 1

→   1 ≡ 23 - 2×11   (mod 1000)

→   1 ≡ 23 - 2×(1000 - 43×23)   (mod 1000)

→   1 ≡ 23 - 2×1000 + 86×23   (mod 1000)

→   1 ≡ 87×23 - 2×1000 ≡ 87×23   (mod 1000)

→   23⁻¹ ≡ 87   (mod 1000)

3 0
3 years ago
50× 3/8 how to reduce answer to lowest te
hoa [83]

The lowest term is \frac{75}{4}.

Solution:

Given expression is 50\times\frac{3}{8}

<u>To reduce this term to the lowest term:</u>

$50\times\frac{3}{8}=\frac{50}{1}\times\frac{3}{8}

Multiply the numerator and denominator.

$50\times\frac{3}{8}=\frac{150}{8}

Now, divide the numerator and denominator by the greatest common factor.

Here 150 and 8 both have common factor 2.

So, divide numerator and denominator by 2.

           $=\frac{150\div2}{8\div2}

           $=\frac{75}{4}

$50\times\frac{3}{8}=\frac{75}{4}

Hence the lowest term is \frac{75}{4}.

4 0
3 years ago
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