Answer:
<u>43%</u>
Step-by-step explanation:
mark me as brainliest please
Let
x----------------> <span>feet of yarn of Becky
y----------------> </span><span>feet of yarn of James
we know that
4 2/8------> 4 1/4--------> (4*4+1)/4-----> 17/4
1 5/8------> (1*8+5)/8-----> 13/5
x+y=4 2/8-------> x+y=17/4----> equation 1
x=1 5/8--------> x=13/5------> equation 2
substitute 2 in 1
[13/5]+y=17/4------> y=(17/4)-(13/5)----> y=[5*17-4*13]/20
y=(85-52)/20-----> y=33/20----> y=1.65-----> y=1 65/100----> y=1 13/20
the answer is
</span><span>james have 1 13/20 ft of yarn</span>
A) f(x) = x-2 because the points in the y axis are -2 from the origin and x goes first
Answer:
0.1111
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that you roll two dice.
the average of the high and low roll is exactly 3,
Since die can show only 1 to 6 we can say average can be 3 in each of the following case.
(1,5) (2,4) (3,3) (4,2) (5,1)
There cannot be any other combination to get average of 3.
Thus favourable events = 4
Sample space will have
(1,1)...(1,6)
(2,1)....
(6,1)...(6,6) i.e. 36
So probability that the average of the high and low roll is exactly 3
=
