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3 years ago

Explain the relationships among speed, frequency, and the number of poles in a three-phase induction motor

1 answer:

5 0

The synchronous speed (rpm) equals 60 times the frequency divided by the number of pole pairs. For 50Hz, a two-pole motor will have a synchronous speed of 3000 rpm, a four-pole motor of 1500 rpm.

The actual speed is a few percent lower due to the slip of the asynchronous motor.

The slip increases with the torque, typical values are 5–10%. The rated speed for a four-pole motor at 50Hz will thus be something like 1360 rpm. At no-load, the slip is very small.

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waller company does business in two regional segments: north and south. the following annual revenue information was determined

Alla [95]

Answer:

Detaled solution can be seen in the attached diagrams:

8 0

3 years ago

Bryan Inc. produces a specialty top-quality juice machine. The product, the JM50, requires four processes to be completed. Speci

laiz [17]

Answer:

3,000,000 juicers

Explanation:

Maximum numbers per workstation in 30 days:

Exterior construction = 100,000*30 = 3,000,000

Pulp filter = 25,000*24/6*30 = 3,000,000

Painting = 3,000*24/0.5*30 = 4,320,000

Packaging = 5,000*24*30 = 3,600,000.

The lowest of the numbers above is 3,120,000 and that means that Bryan inc. can manufacture 3,000,000 juicers.

3 0

2 years ago

Many entire vocations in the United States have disappeared in the last few decades. Which of the following is a possible explan

neonofarm [45]

Answer:

C,D

Explanation:

I guess..

btw not sure :)

6 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The management of Unter Corporation, an architectural design firm, is considering an investment with the following cash flows: Y

nordsb [41]

Answer:

The payback period of the investment is 6.5 years

Explanation:

1. In order to calculate the payback period of the investment we would have to make the following calculation:

payback period of the investment=Year before full recovery+(Unrecovered cost at the start/cash flow during the year )

payback period of the investment=6+ ($23,000−$20,500) /$5,000

payback period of the investment=6.5 Years

The payback period of the investment is 6.5 years

5 0

3 years ago

Venezuela Co. is building a new hockey arena at a cost of $2,500,000. It received a downpayment of $500,000 from local businesse

FromTheMoon [43]

Answer:

cash 2,011,446 debit

unamortized bond cost 50,000 debit

bonds payable 2,000,000 credit

premium on BP 61,446 credit

--to record issuance--

# Beg. Carrying //cash // expense //Amortization// End.Carrying Value

1 2,061,446 210,000 206144.57 3855.43 2,057,590

2 2,057,590 210,000 205759.02 -4240.98 2,053,349

3 2,053,349 210,000 205334.93 -4665.07 2,048,684

4 2,048,684 210,000 204868.42 -5131.58 2,043,553

5 2,043,553 210,000 204355.26 -5644.74 2,037,908

Bonds payable 1,000,000 debit

premium on BP 24,342 debit

issuance cost expense 25,000 debit

interest expense 51,217.1 debit

loss at redemption 41.959,9‬ debit

cash 1,117,500 credit

unarmortized bond issuance cost 25,000 credit

Explanation:

First, we solve the value collected which is the present value of the coupon payment and maturity

$C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\$

C 210,000.000

time 10

rate 0.1

$210000 \times \frac{1-(1+0.1)^{-10} }{0.1} = PV\\$

PV $1,290,359.0922

$\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV$

Maturity 2,000,000.00

time 10.00

rate 0.1

$\frac{2000000}{(1 + 0.1)^{10} } = PV$

PV 771,086.58

PV c $ 1,290,359.0922

PV m $ 771,086.5789

Total $ 2,061,445.6711

Now, we solve for the premium

2,061,446 - 2,000,000 = 61,446 premium

the interst expense will be calcualte as carrying value times market rate

the cash will be the same for every period thus 210,000

Finally, the difference will be the amortizationon the premium

If redem on July 1st 2016 we need to record the interst:

2,048,684 x .05 = 102.434,2/2 = 51.217,1

cash interest: 1,000,000 x 10.5% / 2 = 52,500

Total cash

52,500 interest

1,065,000 bonds

1,117,500

portion of unamortized cost 25,000

face value 1,000,000

portion of premium: 48,684/2 = 24.342‬

the loss f redemption will be the difference between the interest expense, amoritzation on premiun and write-off of the face value with the amount of cash outlay.

8 0

3 years ago