Answer:
Point a is correct.
Step-by-step explanation:
hope I helped.
Where's your number line?
Answer:
The answer is a A. I just took a short test about it.
Step-by-step explanation:
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1 Convert 12\frac{2}{3}12
3
2
to improper fraction. Use this rule: a \frac{b}{c}=\frac{ac+b}{c}a
c
b
=
c
ac+b
\frac{12\times 3+2}{3}\times 3\frac{1}{4}
3
12×3+2
×3
4
1
2 Simplify 12\times 312×3 to 3636
\frac{36+2}{3}\times 3\frac{1}{4}
3
36+2
×3
4
1
3 Simplify 36+236+2 to 3838
\frac{38}{3}\times 3\frac{1}{4}
3
38
×3
4
1
4 Convert 3\frac{1}{4}3
4
1
to improper fraction. Use this rule: a \frac{b}{c}=\frac{ac+b}{c}a
c
b
=
c
ac+b
\frac{38}{3}\times \frac{3\times 4+1}{4}
3
38
×
4
3×4+1
5 Simplify 3\times 43×4 to 1212
\frac{38}{3}\times \frac{12+1}{4}
3
38
×
4
12+1
6 Simplify 12+112+1 to 1313
\frac{38}{3}\times \frac{13}{4}
3
38
×
4
13
7 Use this rule: \frac{a}{b}\times \frac{c}{d}=\frac{ac}{bd}
b
a
×
d
c
=
bd
ac
\frac{38\times 13}{3\times 4}
3×4
38×13
8 Simplify 38\times 1338×13 to 494494
\frac{494}{3\times 4}
3×4
494
9 Simplify 3\times 43×4 to 1212
\frac{494}{12}
12
494
10 Simplify
\frac{247}{6}
6
247
11 Convert to mixed fraction
41\frac{1}{6}41
6
1
41 and 1/6
Answer:
<u>infinitely many solutions</u>
Step-by-step explanation:
The system of equations :
- 3x + 2y = 7
- -4.5x - 3y = -10.5
Multiplying Equation 1 times 3 and Equation 2 times 2 :
- 9x + 6y = 21
- -9x - 6y = -21
Putting the equations in standard form after simplifying :
- 6y = -9x + 21 ⇒ <u>y = -1.5x + 3.5</u>
- -6y = 9x - 21 ⇒ <u>y = -1.5x + 3.5</u>
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As both equations are the same, the system will have <u>infinitely many solutions</u>.